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This is a 15 MCQ quiz on some of the recent updates to the manual. We suggest reviewing the recent updates before taking this quiz.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
The most reliable site for monitoring SpO2 in a patient with poor perfusion is
Correct
The forehead is the most accurate, and most rapidly responsive site to monitor SpO2 in patients with poor perfusion. The finger is more affected by sympathetic tone and the ear more dependent on arterial blood pressure. The toe is usually the least reliable site in this situation. (Link)
Incorrect
The forehead is the most accurate, and most rapidly responsive site to monitor SpO2 in patients with poor perfusion. The finger is more affected by sympathetic tone and the ear more dependent on arterial blood pressure. The toe is usually the least reliable site in this situation. (Link)
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
The percentage of patients presenting to an Australian adult, tertiary ED that might be considered appropriate to see a GP is
Correct
A 2013 Australian study demonstrated that 10%-12% of patients attending tertiary EDs may be suitable for general practice whilst the Australian Institute of Health and Welfare method of calculating ‘GP’ attendances to EDs overestimates the actual figure and impact on ED occupancy by 10 -15% (Link)
Incorrect
A 2013 Australian study demonstrated that 10%-12% of patients attending tertiary EDs may be suitable for general practice whilst the Australian Institute of Health and Welfare method of calculating ‘GP’ attendances to EDs overestimates the actual figure and impact on ED occupancy by 10 -15% (Link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding ‘GP’ patients in ED is not correct
Correct
The methodology used in most studies to determine if an ED attendance is “inappropriate” use the discharge diagnosis to determine this however a JAMA 2013 study showed that 90% of “inappropriate” ED attendances have presenting symptoms indistinguishable from “appropriate” ED attendances. The concept of appropriateness is subjective and usually reflects the administrators views and values, rather than those of the patient. A 2013 Australian study demonstrated
that ‘GP’ patients comprised 3 – 5% of total ED length of stay in an adult tertiary ED and proportionally more ‘GP’ patients presenting during weekday daytime (08:00-17:00) and proportionally fewer overnight (00:00-08:00). (Link)
Incorrect
The methodology used in most studies to determine if an ED attendance is “inappropriate” use the discharge diagnosis to determine this however a JAMA 2013 study showed that 90% of “inappropriate” ED attendances have presenting symptoms indistinguishable from “appropriate” ED attendances. The concept of appropriateness is subjective and usually reflects the administrators views and values, rather than those of the patient. A 2013 Australian study demonstrated
that ‘GP’ patients comprised 3 – 5% of total ED length of stay in an adult tertiary ED and proportionally more ‘GP’ patients presenting during weekday daytime (08:00-17:00) and proportionally fewer overnight (00:00-08:00). (Link)
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding cat bites is least correct
Correct
Cat bites are equivalent to cat claw injuries. They are usually puncture wounds and have a higher infection rate than dog bites. Pasteurella multocida is one of the organisms responsible for infection in about 75% of cases.(Link)
Incorrect
Cat bites are equivalent to cat claw injuries. They are usually puncture wounds and have a higher infection rate than dog bites. Pasteurella multocida is one of the organisms responsible for infection in about 75% of cases.(Link)
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
When assessing patients with punch injuries to the knuckles it is important to do all of the following except
Correct
Wounds over the MCP joint should be assessed with the fingers fully flexed as this is usually the position the injury occurred. In the extended position, a damaged tendon may retract out of view. A partially divided extensor tendon may still produce full finger extension. Gas in an MCP joint implies joint penetration, however radiography is insensitive in this situation so should not be used to exclude the need for exploration. Although rare, consider Hepatitis B and HIV prophylaxis in patients with injuries from high risk individuals.(Link)
Incorrect
Wounds over the MCP joint should be assessed with the fingers fully flexed as this is usually the position the injury occurred. In the extended position, a damaged tendon may retract out of view. A partially divided extensor tendon may still produce full finger extension. Gas in an MCP joint implies joint penetration, however radiography is insensitive in this situation so should not be used to exclude the need for exploration. Although rare, consider Hepatitis B and HIV prophylaxis in patients with injuries from high risk individuals.(Link)
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
Which one of the following statements about the NEXUS chest rule for CXR following blunt trauma is correct?
Correct
The NEXUS Chest criteria apply only to patients > 14 years of age. The criteria to perform radiography are the presence of any one of: age > 60 years; rapid deceleration mechanism; chest pain; intoxication; abnormal alertness/mental status; distracting painful injury; tenderness on chest wall palpation. The rule is about 99% sensitive and 13% specific for significant thoracic injury. (Link)
Incorrect
The NEXUS Chest criteria apply only to patients > 14 years of age. The criteria to perform radiography are the presence of any one of: age > 60 years; rapid deceleration mechanism; chest pain; intoxication; abnormal alertness/mental status; distracting painful injury; tenderness on chest wall palpation. The rule is about 99% sensitive and 13% specific for significant thoracic injury. (Link)
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
Indications for US in a patient with superficial thrombophlebitis include all of the following except
Correct
Superficial phlebitis not affecting the great or small saphenous vein, and with no other risk factors for DVT does not usually require investigation due to the low risk of DVT. Repeat examination within 7 – 10 days in patients with confirmed thrombophlebitis at risk of developing DVT is advised.
Indications include; superficial phlebitis of the proximal third of the medial thigh; clinical evidence of extension of phlebitis; lower extremity swelling greater than expected from superficial thrombophlebitis alone; or if the diagnosis of superficial phlebitis is in question. (Link)Incorrect
Superficial phlebitis not affecting the great or small saphenous vein, and with no other risk factors for DVT does not usually require investigation due to the low risk of DVT. Repeat examination within 7 – 10 days in patients with confirmed thrombophlebitis at risk of developing DVT is advised.
Indications include; superficial phlebitis of the proximal third of the medial thigh; clinical evidence of extension of phlebitis; lower extremity swelling greater than expected from superficial thrombophlebitis alone; or if the diagnosis of superficial phlebitis is in question. (Link) -
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
A 3 month old child is considered anaemic when the Hb concentration is less than
Correct
The normal Hb is at least 13g/dL in the first month of life, then declines to a nadir at 2-3 months where the lower limit of normality is 9g/dL. It then rises again and should be > 11g/dL by 12 months. (link)
Incorrect
The normal Hb is at least 13g/dL in the first month of life, then declines to a nadir at 2-3 months where the lower limit of normality is 9g/dL. It then rises again and should be > 11g/dL by 12 months. (link)
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
Which one of the following features on imaging of the liver would make you suspicious of alveolar echinococcus?
Correct
Alveolar echinococcus is caused by Echinoccus multilocularis and is potentially life threatening. It is becoming increasingly common due to invasion of cities in Europe and Japan by red foxes, the main definitive hosts. It is endemic only in the Northern hemisphere but could occur in travellers to Australasia, especially as there is an asymptomatic phase of 5-15 years.
Imaging features that distinguish it from cystic echinococcus (mostly benign disease) include; involvement of the right lobe of the liver; local extension into the abdomen, retroperitoneum or diaphragm; infiltrative, alveolar-like pattern; numerous vesicles (<1 mm -15 cm in diameter); dense surrounding connective tissue; absence of cyst fluid; and occasionally central necrosis. (link)
Incorrect
Alveolar echinococcus is caused by Echinoccus multilocularis and is potentially life threatening. It is becoming increasingly common due to invasion of cities in Europe and Japan by red foxes, the main definitive hosts. It is endemic only in the Northern hemisphere but could occur in travellers to Australasia, especially as there is an asymptomatic phase of 5-15 years.
Imaging features that distinguish it from cystic echinococcus (mostly benign disease) include; involvement of the right lobe of the liver; local extension into the abdomen, retroperitoneum or diaphragm; infiltrative, alveolar-like pattern; numerous vesicles (<1 mm -15 cm in diameter); dense surrounding connective tissue; absence of cyst fluid; and occasionally central necrosis. (link)
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
The organ that alveolar echinococcus affects most often is the
Correct
Despite it’s name, alevolar echinococcus is almost completely confined to the liver. The reason it is called ‘alveolar’ is that it has an alveolar like spreading pattern through the liver in active disease. (link)
Incorrect
Despite it’s name, alevolar echinococcus is almost completely confined to the liver. The reason it is called ‘alveolar’ is that it has an alveolar like spreading pattern through the liver in active disease. (link)
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
Which one of the following agents is the most likely to cause adverse effects in a child of a breast feeding mother to whom it was administered
Correct
Venlafaxine is considered intermediate risk as it achieves clinically significant levels (≥ 10% of maternal concentrations) in the breast feeding infant. Other agents of intermediate risk include bupropion, clomipramine, diazepam, fluoxetine, doxepin, citalopram, lamotrigine, fluvoxamine, mirtazepine, sertraline, olanzepine, nortriptyline and thiazide diuretics. The other agents listed are considered safe in lactation. (link)
Incorrect
Venlafaxine is considered intermediate risk as it achieves clinically significant levels (≥ 10% of maternal concentrations) in the breast feeding infant. Other agents of intermediate risk include bupropion, clomipramine, diazepam, fluoxetine, doxepin, citalopram, lamotrigine, fluvoxamine, mirtazepine, sertraline, olanzepine, nortriptyline and thiazide diuretics. The other agents listed are considered safe in lactation. (link)
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
Which one of the following drugs would be most likely to cause adverse effects in the child of a lactating mother to whom it was administered?
Correct
Thiopentone, propofol and etomidate are all considered safe in lactation. There is limited information about ketamine in lactation, so should be considered a higher risk than the other agents until more information is known. (link)
Incorrect
Thiopentone, propofol and etomidate are all considered safe in lactation. There is limited information about ketamine in lactation, so should be considered a higher risk than the other agents until more information is known. (link)
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the diagnosis of Pertussis is incorrect
Correct
Pertussis and parapertussis are clinically indistinguishable. Culture of a nasopharyngeal aspirate is only about 20% sensitive, although 100% specific, within first 3 weeks of cough in children. PCR is the investigation of choice and is 3 times more sensitive than culture in the first few weeks of cough. The sensitivity of PCR decreases with longer duration of symptoms and in older patients. (link)
Incorrect
Pertussis and parapertussis are clinically indistinguishable. Culture of a nasopharyngeal aspirate is only about 20% sensitive, although 100% specific, within first 3 weeks of cough in children. PCR is the investigation of choice and is 3 times more sensitive than culture in the first few weeks of cough. The sensitivity of PCR decreases with longer duration of symptoms and in older patients. (link)
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
The Audit C screening tool for problem drinking asks about
Correct
Audit C tool is a 3 question screening tool that asks about alcohol frequency, quantity and binge drinking. Up to 4 points can be allocated for each response, making a maximum score of 12. Hazardous drinking present if the score is >4 in males or > 3 in females. CAGE is a 4 question screening tool that asks about thoughts of cutting down, annoyance at criticism of their drinking, guilt about drinking and drinking to cure a hangover. (link)
Incorrect
Audit C tool is a 3 question screening tool that asks about alcohol frequency, quantity and binge drinking. Up to 4 points can be allocated for each response, making a maximum score of 12. Hazardous drinking present if the score is >4 in males or > 3 in females. CAGE is a 4 question screening tool that asks about thoughts of cutting down, annoyance at criticism of their drinking, guilt about drinking and drinking to cure a hangover. (link)