Quiz-summary
0 of 15 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
Information
This is a 15 MCQ quiz on some of the recent updates to the manual. We suggest reviewing the recent updates before taking this quiz.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 15 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Bone and joint - Fellowship 0%
- Clinical practice skills - Fellowship 0%
- Haematology - fellowship 0%
- ID - fellowship 0%
- Infectious diseases - Fellowship 0%
- Neurology - fellowship 0%
- Obstetrics - Fellowship 0%
- Paediatrics - fellowship 0%
- Renal urology - Fellowship 0%
- Resuscitation - fellowship 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 15
1. Question
Which one of the following statements best describes the test characteristics of a positive pronator quadratus fat pad sign for a distal radial fracture.
Correct
The pronator fat pad is a small fat plane over the volar aspect of the distal forearm which is visible in about 90% of normal lateral radiographs as a thin radiolucency running parallel to the distal radius with the distal edge in contact with the volar aspect of the radius. The sensitivity and specificity of a positive fat pad sign for fractures in this region based on MRI studies are both about 70%. Previous studies reported much better test characteristics than this, however did not use MRI as the gold standard. (link)
Incorrect
The pronator fat pad is a small fat plane over the volar aspect of the distal forearm which is visible in about 90% of normal lateral radiographs as a thin radiolucency running parallel to the distal radius with the distal edge in contact with the volar aspect of the radius. The sensitivity and specificity of a positive fat pad sign for fractures in this region based on MRI studies are both about 70%. Previous studies reported much better test characteristics than this, however did not use MRI as the gold standard. (link)
-
Question 2 of 15
2. Question
The rate of antibiotic resistance to standard therapy of community acquired pneumonia with the presence of ≥ 2 of: recent ICU admission; immunosuppression; hospitalisation within 90 days; poor functional status; previous antibiotics within 6 months, is approximately
Correct
The presence of 2 or more of the risk factors is associated with a 25% rate of antibiotic resistance to standard therapy compared to a 2% incidence in patients with 0-1 risk factor. (link)
Incorrect
The presence of 2 or more of the risk factors is associated with a 25% rate of antibiotic resistance to standard therapy compared to a 2% incidence in patients with 0-1 risk factor. (link)
-
Question 3 of 15
3. Question
Normally, platelet concentrations are highest
-
Question 4 of 15
4. Question
The arterial [HCO3-] in children < 2 years of age is normally
Correct
Normally the arterial [HCO3-] in children < 2 years of age is 2 mmol/L lower than in adults. The normal range is 17– 24 mmol/L in neonates and 19 – 24 mmol/L in children 2 months – 2 years of age. (link)
Incorrect
Normally the arterial [HCO3-] in children < 2 years of age is 2 mmol/L lower than in adults. The normal range is 17– 24 mmol/L in neonates and 19 – 24 mmol/L in children 2 months – 2 years of age. (link)
-
Question 5 of 15
5. Question
The normal range for the base deficit in neonates is
-
Question 6 of 15
6. Question
The normal [HbF] at 1 year of age is
Correct
HbF is normally about 50 – 85% of total Hb at birth, 15% at 1 year of age, < 5% at 2 years of age and < 2% after 2 years of age. (link)
Incorrect
-
Question 7 of 15
7. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding priapism is incorrect
Correct
Resolution occurs in 80% with adrenaline following aspiration but is unlike to be successful if priapism present > 36 hours. Phenylephrine is about 65% successful however does not have the beta adrenergic effects of adrenaline. Metaraminol may also be used, but is only about 40% effective. Ischaemic priapism is considered present if a cavernosal blood gas demonstrates a pH < 7.25, pO2 < 30 or pCO2 > 60. (link)
Incorrect
Resolution occurs in 80% with adrenaline following aspiration but is unlike to be successful if priapism present > 36 hours. Phenylephrine is about 65% successful however does not have the beta adrenergic effects of adrenaline. Metaraminol may also be used, but is only about 40% effective. Ischaemic priapism is considered present if a cavernosal blood gas demonstrates a pH < 7.25, pO2 < 30 or pCO2 > 60. (link)
-
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
Which one of the following insertion length calculations for an internal jugular CVC is incorrect
Correct
Insertion length in adults on the right side = (height(cm)/10) cm, and on the left side = (height(cm)/10) + 4 cm. The insertion length in infants on the right side = (height(cm)/16) cm and on the left side = (height(cm)/14) cm. (link)
Incorrect
Insertion length in adults on the right side = (height(cm)/10) cm, and on the left side = (height(cm)/10) + 4 cm. The insertion length in infants on the right side = (height(cm)/16) cm and on the left side = (height(cm)/14) cm. (link)
-
Question 9 of 15
9. Question
A delivery between which of the following date ranges is considered a full term pregnancy
Correct
Pregnancy duration is classified as follows: early term: 37 – 38 weeks, 6 days; full term: 39 – 40 weeks, 6 days; late term: 41 – 41 weeks, 6 days; post term: ≥ 42 weeks. (link)
Incorrect
Pregnancy duration is classified as follows: early term: 37 – 38 weeks, 6 days; full term: 39 – 40 weeks, 6 days; late term: 41 – 41 weeks, 6 days; post term: ≥ 42 weeks. (link)
-
Question 10 of 15
10. Question
Which one of the following agents should have its dose calculated based on actual (instead of ideal) body weight
-
Question 11 of 15
11. Question
Which one of the following agents is classified in Australia and New Zealand as class A in pregnancy
Correct
Commonly used antihistamines have the following ratings: chlorpheniramine and cyproheptadine category A; loratadine category B1; fexofenadine category B2; promethazine category C. (link)
Incorrect
Commonly used antihistamines have the following ratings: chlorpheniramine and cyproheptadine category A; loratadine category B1; fexofenadine category B2; promethazine category C. (link)
-
Question 12 of 15
12. Question
Which one of the following features would you least expect in a patient with mumps orchitis
Correct
Mumps orchitis occurs in 15 – 30% of postpubertal males with mumps, with onset usually 4-5 days after the onset of parotitis. It is unilateral in approximately 70% (hence bilateral in up to 30%) of cases with bilateral cases developing in the opposite testicle 3-4 days after the first testicle is involved. It may occur without parotitis and presents with chills, sweats, headache and backache, swinging temperature and severe local testicular pain and tenderness. The scrotum may be very swollen and oedematous and the testes are often impalpable. Reduced fertility following orchitis is rare, even when bilateral. (link)
Incorrect
Mumps orchitis occurs in 15 – 30% of postpubertal males with mumps, with onset usually 4-5 days after the onset of parotitis. It is unilateral in approximately 70% (hence bilateral in up to 30%) of cases with bilateral cases developing in the opposite testicle 3-4 days after the first testicle is involved. It may occur without parotitis and presents with chills, sweats, headache and backache, swinging temperature and severe local testicular pain and tenderness. The scrotum may be very swollen and oedematous and the testes are often impalpable. Reduced fertility following orchitis is rare, even when bilateral. (link)
-
Question 13 of 15
13. Question
Which one of the following features is typical of Dengue shock syndrome
Correct
Dengue shock syndrome usually develops 3-5 days after onset of fever, and occurs in less than 5% of cases of Dengue overall, and even less frequently than that in travellers. It is rarely associated with platelet counts low enough to cause bleeding on their own, however haemorrhage can occur as a result of vascular leakage and low platelet counts. The second rash of Dengue that spreads from the extremities to the trunk may occur at the same time as shock, but is not diagnostic of Dengue shock syndrome. (link)
Incorrect
Dengue shock syndrome usually develops 3-5 days after onset of fever, and occurs in less than 5% of cases of Dengue overall, and even less frequently than that in travellers. It is rarely associated with platelet counts low enough to cause bleeding on their own, however haemorrhage can occur as a result of vascular leakage and low platelet counts. The second rash of Dengue that spreads from the extremities to the trunk may occur at the same time as shock, but is not diagnostic of Dengue shock syndrome. (link)
-
Question 14 of 15
14. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the oculocephalic reflex is incorrect
Correct
The oculocephalic reflex (also known as “doll’s eye” movements) is the involuntary movement of the eyes with head movement. A positive reflex is when the eyes of the patient remain stationary while the head is moved, in either a side to side or up and down motion. It does not require object fixation to be present as it occurs in unconscious patients who are blind or in the dark. It is absent in conscious patients as it is suppressed by cortical inputs. It indicates an intact brainstem and suggests a non structural cause for coma. An absent reflex occurs in: hysterical coma; lesions of the labyrinth, vestibular nerve; lesions of cranial nerves III, IV or VI; lesions of the extra-ocular muscles (very rare); lesions of the connecting pathways of the pons or medulla; lesions of the neck proprioceptors. (link)
Incorrect
The oculocephalic reflex (also known as “doll’s eye” movements) is the involuntary movement of the eyes with head movement. A positive reflex is when the eyes of the patient remain stationary while the head is moved, in either a side to side or up and down motion. It does not require object fixation to be present as it occurs in unconscious patients who are blind or in the dark. It is absent in conscious patients as it is suppressed by cortical inputs. It indicates an intact brainstem and suggests a non structural cause for coma. An absent reflex occurs in: hysterical coma; lesions of the labyrinth, vestibular nerve; lesions of cranial nerves III, IV or VI; lesions of the extra-ocular muscles (very rare); lesions of the connecting pathways of the pons or medulla; lesions of the neck proprioceptors. (link)
-
Question 15 of 15
15. Question
All of the following structures would normally be expected to enhance on a head CT following IV contrast injection except
Correct
Structures that normally enhance following IV contrast include: the dura (although usually not recognised when next to the skull due to similar levels of attenuation); the falx and tentorium; the choroid plexus; the vessels in the circle of Willis. The pineal gland is commonly calcified, but does not normally enhance. (link)
Incorrect
Structures that normally enhance following IV contrast include: the dura (although usually not recognised when next to the skull due to similar levels of attenuation); the falx and tentorium; the choroid plexus; the vessels in the circle of Willis. The pineal gland is commonly calcified, but does not normally enhance. (link)