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This is a 30 point MCQ/EMQ quiz on some of the updates to the manual in late October – November 2014. There is rather a lot about gentamicin in this one so we suggest you review the appropriate sections before taking this quiz.
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Question 1 of 23
1. Question
Which one of the following primary tumours are most likely to cause osteolytic bone metastases
Correct
Primary tumours that cause osteosclerotic bony metastases include: prostate, carcinoid, small cell lung, Hodgkin’s lymphoma and medulloblastoma. Primary tumours that cause osteolytic bony metastases include: renal cell, small cell lung, thyroid, melanoma and lymphoma. (link)
Incorrect
Primary tumours that cause osteosclerotic bony metastases include: prostate, carcinoid, small cell lung, Hodgkin’s lymphoma and medulloblastoma. Primary tumours that cause osteolytic bony metastases include: renal cell, small cell lung, thyroid, melanoma and lymphoma. (link)
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Question 2 of 23
2. Question
Which one of the following primary tumours most commonly causes osteosclerotic bony metastases.
Correct
Primary tumours that cause osteosclerotic bony metastases include: prostate, carcinoid, small cell lung, Hodgkin’s lymphoma and medulloblastoma. Primary tumours that cause osteolytic bony metastases include: renal cell, small cell lung, thyroid, melanoma and lymphoma. (link)
Incorrect
Primary tumours that cause osteosclerotic bony metastases include: prostate, carcinoid, small cell lung, Hodgkin’s lymphoma and medulloblastoma. Primary tumours that cause osteolytic bony metastases include: renal cell, small cell lung, thyroid, melanoma and lymphoma. (link)
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Question 3 of 23
3. Question
Which one of the following is the most useful immediate therapeutic target in a patient with septic shock.
Correct
The therapeutic targets that are measurable immediately are most relevant to ED practice and include:MAP > 65mmHg; sBP > 100mmHg; HR < 100/min. (assuming no tachyarrhythmia also present); JVP >3cm H20; bedside US demonstrating adequate IVC or IJV filling. An additional targets that may be measurable within 1 hour is CVP 8-12 mmHg. Targets usually measurable only after 1 hour include: urine output > 0.5 mL/kg/hour; central venous or mixed venous oxygen saturation > 70% (although outcomes are probably no better than when CVP or CVO2 are not measured). (link)
Incorrect
The therapeutic targets that are measurable immediately are most relevant to ED practice and include:MAP > 65mmHg; sBP > 100mmHg; HR < 100/min. (assuming no tachyarrhythmia also present); JVP >3cm H20; bedside US demonstrating adequate IVC or IJV filling. An additional targets that may be measurable within 1 hour is CVP 8-12 mmHg. Targets usually measurable only after 1 hour include: urine output > 0.5 mL/kg/hour; central venous or mixed venous oxygen saturation > 70% (although outcomes are probably no better than when CVP or CVO2 are not measured). (link)
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Question 4 of 23
4. Question
A spinal cord injury at the T8 vertebral level would be expected to cause neurological findings at, and distal to, the neurological (myotome/dermatome) level of
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Question 5 of 23
5. Question
A spinal cord injury at the L1 vertebral level would be expected to cause neurological findings at, and distal to, the neurological (myotome/dermatome) level of
Correct
A spinal cord injury at the L1 vertebral level would be expected to cause neurological findings at, and distal to, the neurological (myotome/dermatome) level of L5 (link)
Incorrect
A spinal cord injury at the L1 vertebral level would be expected to cause neurological findings at, and distal to, the neurological (myotome/dermatome) level of L5 (link)
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Question 6 of 23
6. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding cutaneous mastocytomas is correct
Correct
Cutaneous mastocytomas are usually solitary lesions of 1 – 5 cm in diameter that may arise at any site. They usually appear before 6 months of age and lesions may even be present at birth. They may start as recurrent bullae or wheal that evolves into an infiltrated, pink – tan plaque rind like surface and hyperpigmentation may be prominent. Spontaneous involution usually occurs and trauma or rubbing may cause histamine release. (link)
Incorrect
Cutaneous mastocytomas are usually solitary lesions of 1 – 5 cm in diameter that may arise at any site. They usually appear before 6 months of age and lesions may even be present at birth. They may start as recurrent bullae or wheal that evolves into an infiltrated, pink – tan plaque rind like surface and hyperpigmentation may be prominent. Spontaneous involution usually occurs and trauma or rubbing may cause histamine release. (link)
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Question 7 of 23
7. Question
A single swallow of which one of the following would be least likely to kill a toddler
Correct
Dishwashing liquid is usually only mildly alkaline and does not usually cause significant toxicity when swallowed, as distinct from dishwashing powders that are often strongly alkali. Single swallows that may cause a toddler include the following substances: ammonia fluoride/bifluoride; boric acid; disk batteries; hydrofluoric acid; selenious acid; herbal compounds such as camphor, eucalyptus oil, oil of wintergreen (methyl salicylate), pennyroyal oil: hydrocarbons; imidazolines such as naphazoline, oxymetazoline, tetrahydrozoline, xylometazoline; insecticides/rodenticides/herbicides such as carbamates, diquat, lindane, nicotine, organophosphates and paraquat. (link)
Incorrect
Dishwashing liquid is usually only mildly alkaline and does not usually cause significant toxicity when swallowed, as distinct from dishwashing powders that are often strongly alkali. Single swallows that may cause a toddler include the following substances: ammonia fluoride/bifluoride; boric acid; disk batteries; hydrofluoric acid; selenious acid; herbal compounds such as camphor, eucalyptus oil, oil of wintergreen (methyl salicylate), pennyroyal oil: hydrocarbons; imidazolines such as naphazoline, oxymetazoline, tetrahydrozoline, xylometazoline; insecticides/rodenticides/herbicides such as carbamates, diquat, lindane, nicotine, organophosphates and paraquat. (link)
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Question 8 of 23
8. Question
The approximate test characteristics of a transverse 5-10MHz US in the suprasternal notch to detect a saline filled cuff in children < 18 year of age are
Correct
The TRUST technique (tracheal rapid ultrasound saline test) is an US technique used to identify a saline filled ETT cuff at the level of the suprasternal notch. It uses a 5- 10-Hz linear transducer placed in a transverse orientation at the level of the suprasternal notch. In children less than 18 years of age, visualisation of the saline filled cuff at the level of the suprasternal notch is approximately 99% sensitive and 96% specific for correct ETT position. (link)
Incorrect
The TRUST technique (tracheal rapid ultrasound saline test) is an US technique used to identify a saline filled ETT cuff at the level of the suprasternal notch. It uses a 5- 10-Hz linear transducer placed in a transverse orientation at the level of the suprasternal notch. In children less than 18 years of age, visualisation of the saline filled cuff at the level of the suprasternal notch is approximately 99% sensitive and 96% specific for correct ETT position. (link)
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Question 9 of 23
9. Question
The presence of toxicity that would be least expected from oral fluoroquinone therapy is
Correct
Common adverse effects from fluoroquinones include: GIT; headache; dizziness, insomnia; pulmonary fibrosis; photosensitivity; tendinopathy / rupture; peripheral neuropathy; and fluctuations in blood glucose in diabetics. Haematuria is rarely reported. (link)
Incorrect
Common adverse effects from fluoroquinones include: GIT; headache; dizziness, insomnia; pulmonary fibrosis; photosensitivity; tendinopathy / rupture; peripheral neuropathy; and fluctuations in blood glucose in diabetics. Haematuria is rarely reported. (link)
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Question 10 of 23
10. Question
Nebulised salbutamol therapy in children < 12 months of age with clinical bronchiolitis
Correct
A trial of salbutamol for children < 12 months of age is no longer recommended as there is no evidence of efficacy, reducing admission rates or length of stay. (link)
Incorrect
A trial of salbutamol for children < 12 months of age is no longer recommended as there is no evidence of efficacy, reducing admission rates or length of stay. (link)
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Question 11 of 23
11. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding cardiac arrest in pregnancy is incorrect
Correct
In cardiac arrest in pregnancy chest compressions should be applied slightly higher on the sternum than in the non pregnant patient. The gravid uterus should be displaced laterally to the left or a tilt to left of 15-30 An IV fluid bolus should be considered and Mg therapy should be ceased (if in progress) and 10mL 10% CaCl administered in case of accidental Mg toxicity. Early intubation is recommended as hypoxia develops more rapidly in advanced pregnancy, bag mask ventilation is difficult and there is a high aspiration risk. (link)
Incorrect
In cardiac arrest in pregnancy chest compressions should be applied slightly higher on the sternum than in the non pregnant patient. The gravid uterus should be displaced laterally to the left or a tilt to left of 15-30 An IV fluid bolus should be considered and Mg therapy should be ceased (if in progress) and 10mL 10% CaCl administered in case of accidental Mg toxicity. Early intubation is recommended as hypoxia develops more rapidly in advanced pregnancy, bag mask ventilation is difficult and there is a high aspiration risk. (link)
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Question 12 of 23
12. Question
The best echocardiographic view to determine the presence of a bicuspid valve is the
Correct
The PLAX view on echocardiography is the best for macroscopically determining severity of the right (closest to probe) and non coronary cusps (furthest from probe), but not the left. One cusp often appears more diseased than the others. The PSAX view is best for determining the presence of a bicuspid valve and the apical five chamber view is best for measuring the pressure gradient across the valve. The subcostal and apical 4 chamber views do not visualise the aortic valve (link)
Incorrect
The PLAX view on echocardiography is the best for macroscopically determining severity of the right (closest to probe) and non coronary cusps (furthest from probe), but not the left. One cusp often appears more diseased than the others. The PSAX view is best for determining the presence of a bicuspid valve and the apical five chamber view is best for measuring the pressure gradient across the valve. The subcostal and apical 4 chamber views do not visualise the aortic valve (link)
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Question 13 of 23
13. Question
The preferred first line agent to stimulate uterine contraction in post partum haemorrhage is
Correct
Oxytocin 5 Units slow IV is the preferred first line pharmacological agent to stimulate uterine contraction. Ergometrine 0.25-0.5 mg slow IV or IM can also be used unless there is a history of hypertension and carboprost 0.25 mg IM repeated to a maximum of 8 doses unless there is a history of asthma. Misoprostol (prostaglandin E1 analogue) 1000mg PR is second or third line therapy. (link)
Incorrect
Oxytocin 5 Units slow IV is the preferred first line pharmacological agent to stimulate uterine contraction. Ergometrine 0.25-0.5 mg slow IV or IM can also be used unless there is a history of hypertension and carboprost 0.25 mg IM repeated to a maximum of 8 doses unless there is a history of asthma. Misoprostol (prostaglandin E1 analogue) 1000mg PR is second or third line therapy. (link)
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Question 14 of 23
14. Question
The recommended initial dose per kilogram (based on ideal body weight) of gentamicin for a 60 year old non neutropenic patient with septic shock using a single dose strategy is
Correct
The recommended initial dose per kilogram (based on ideal body weight) of gentamicin for a 60 year old non neutropenic patient with septic shock using a single dose strategy is 7mg/kg. (link)
Incorrect
The recommended initial dose per kilogram (based on ideal body weight) of gentamicin for a 60 year old non neutropenic patient with septic shock using a single dose strategy is 7mg/kg. (link)
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Question 15 of 23
15. Question
The formula to calculate lean body weight (in kg) in men based on their height (in cm) is
Correct
The formula to calculate lean body weight (in kg) in men based on their height (in cm) is lean body weight (kg) = 50kg + 0.9kg x each cm > 150cm in height. (link)
Incorrect
The formula to calculate lean body weight (in kg) in men based on their height (in cm) is lean body weight (kg) = 50kg + 0.9kg x each cm > 150cm in height. (link)
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Question 16 of 23
16. Question
The formula to calculate lean body weight (in kg) in women based on their height (in cm) is
Correct
The formula to calculate lean body weight (in kg) in women based on their height (in cm) is lean body weight (kg) = 45kg + 0.9kg x each cm > 150cm in height. (link)
Incorrect
The formula to calculate lean body weight (in kg) in women based on their height (in cm) is lean body weight (kg) = 45kg + 0.9kg x each cm > 150cm in height. (link)
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Question 17 of 23
17. Question
Match each of the following initial once daily doses/kg of lean body weight of gentamicin for patients without severe sepsis or neutropenia, with the appropriate age group
Sort elements
- 3.5mg/kg
- 7.5mg/kg
- 6mg/kg
- 5mg/kg
- 4mg/kg
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Term neonate
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Children < 10 years of age
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10 - 29 years of age
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30 - 60 years of age
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> 60 years of age
Correct 5 / 5PointsThe recommended once daily initial doses of gentamicin for the treatment of non severe sepsis in non neutropenic patients are : Term neonate – 3.5mg/kg; children < 10 years of age – 7.5mg/kg up to 320mg:; 10 – 29 years of age – 6mg/kg up to 560mg; 30 – 60 years of age – 5mg/kg up to 460mg; > 60 years of age – 4mg/kg up to 400mg. (link)
Incorrect / 5 PointsThe recommended once daily initial doses of gentamicin for the treatment of non severe sepsis in non neutropenic patients are : Term neonate – 3.5mg/kg; children < 10 years of age – 7.5mg/kg up to 320mg:; 10 – 29 years of age – 6mg/kg up to 560mg; 30 – 60 years of age – 5mg/kg up to 460mg; > 60 years of age – 4mg/kg up to 400mg. (link)
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Question 18 of 23
18. Question
The initial daily dose of gentamicin for a large patient 70 years of age with non neutropenic severe sepsis should not exceed
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Question 19 of 23
19. Question
Single daily dose gentamicin therapy is recommended for which one of the following conditions
Correct
Single daily dose gentamicin therapy is not recommended for: febrile neutropenia; burns; SBP; and endocarditis. Once daily gentamicin is not contra-indicated in severe community acquired pneumonia. (link)
Incorrect
Single daily dose gentamicin therapy is not recommended for: febrile neutropenia; burns; SBP; and endocarditis. Once daily gentamicin is not contra-indicated in severe community acquired pneumonia. (link)
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Question 20 of 23
20. Question
You suspect that a patient who has just returned from Papua New Guinea has malaria. The most likely type would be
Correct
Plasmodium falciparum is the most common form in SE Asia, PNG and Indonesia and accounts for most deaths from malaria and approximately 60% of cases in returned travellers. Plasmodium vivax is the most prevalent on a worldwide basis, especially in Latin America, but is rare in sub-Saharan Africa and is responsible for about 20% of cases in returned travellers. Plasmodium ovale and Plasmodium malariae are less common forms. (link)
Incorrect
Plasmodium falciparum is the most common form in SE Asia, PNG and Indonesia and accounts for most deaths from malaria and approximately 60% of cases in returned travellers. Plasmodium vivax is the most prevalent on a worldwide basis, especially in Latin America, but is rare in sub-Saharan Africa and is responsible for about 20% of cases in returned travellers. Plasmodium ovale and Plasmodium malariae are less common forms. (link)
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Question 21 of 23
21. Question
The analgesic effects of oral sucrose are unlikely to have any significant effect in children older than
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Question 22 of 23
22. Question
Rank the following features of Henoch Schonlein purpura in order of expected frequency, from most frequent to least frequent
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Rash
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Joint pain, swelling
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Renal impairment
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Thrombocytopaenia
Correct 4 / 4PointsIn HSP rash is usually present in >95% of cases; joint pain/swelling in 66%; >95% will have haematuria and proteinuria at some stage however renal impairment is much less common and renal failure occurs in < 1% (more common in adults). Thrombocytosis is present in 65% but thrombocytopaenia is not a feature of HSP. (link)
Incorrect / 4 PointsIn HSP rash is usually present in >95% of cases; joint pain/swelling in 66%; >95% will have haematuria and proteinuria at some stage however renal impairment is much less common and renal failure occurs in < 1% (more common in adults). Thrombocytosis is present in 65% but thrombocytopaenia is not a feature of HSP. (link)
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Question 23 of 23
23. Question
Gianotti Crosti is most commonly associated with which one of the following
Correct
Gianotti Crosti is most commonly associated with Hepatitis B virus and Epstein-Barr virus infections. Other associated conditions include: coxsackie virus, adenovirus, enterovirus, human herpes virus 6, reovirus, varicella, roseola, rotavirus, respiratory syncytial virus, Lyme borreliosis, Mycoplasma pneumonia, meningococcal infection, immunisation. (link)
Incorrect
Gianotti Crosti is most commonly associated with Hepatitis B virus and Epstein-Barr virus infections. Other associated conditions include: coxsackie virus, adenovirus, enterovirus, human herpes virus 6, reovirus, varicella, roseola, rotavirus, respiratory syncytial virus, Lyme borreliosis, Mycoplasma pneumonia, meningococcal infection, immunisation. (link)