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This is a 15 MCQ quiz on some of the recent updates to the manual. We suggest reviewing the recent updates before taking this quiz.
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Question 1 of 12
1. Question
The Nellcor easy cap II capnograph indicator disc should be the following colour if the ETCO2 is 35mmHg and the FiO2 is 1
Correct
The indicator strip is purple when the ETCO2 is < 4mmHg; tan when 4-140 mmHg; and yellow when 15-38mmHg. The colour changes between inspiration and expiration however a persistent yellow colour on opening indicates a spoiled product. (Link)
Incorrect
The indicator strip is purple when the ETCO2 is < 4mmHg; tan when 4-140 mmHg; and yellow when 15-38mmHg. The colour changes between inspiration and expiration however a persistent yellow colour on opening indicates a spoiled product. (Link)
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Question 2 of 12
2. Question
The least likely differential diagnosis for EBV infection in an adolescent is
Correct
The differential diagnosis of EBV infection most commonly includes: Streptococcal pharyngitis, Cytomegalovirus, Human herpesvirus 6, Herpes simplex virus type 1, Adenovirus, HIV, Toxoplasmosis, Leukaemia and Lymphoma. Kawasaki’s disease would be the least likely differential. (Link)
Incorrect
The differential diagnosis of EBV infection most commonly includes: Streptococcal pharyngitis, Cytomegalovirus, Human herpesvirus 6, Herpes simplex virus type 1, Adenovirus, HIV, Toxoplasmosis, Leukaemia and Lymphoma. Kawasaki’s disease would be the least likely differential. (Link)
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Question 3 of 12
3. Question
The most common serotype of Neisseria meningiditis causing invasive disease in humans is
Correct
In 2011, 241 laboratory confirmed cases of IMD showed a significant decline since 2004 of Serogroup C Meningococcal infections with serogroup B comprising 78% of bacterial isolates. (Link)
Incorrect
In 2011, 241 laboratory confirmed cases of IMD showed a significant decline since 2004 of Serogroup C Meningococcal infections with serogroup B comprising 78% of bacterial isolates. (Link)
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Question 4 of 12
4. Question
The rash of Henoch Schönlein disease would least be expected to
Correct
The rash usually starts as erythematous macular or urticarial lesions that progress to blanching papules, then becomes palpable purpure. It is usually symmetrical and involves the extensor surfaces of limbs (mainly lower) and buttocks. (Link)
Incorrect
The rash usually starts as erythematous macular or urticarial lesions that progress to blanching papules, then becomes palpable purpure. It is usually symmetrical and involves the extensor surfaces of limbs (mainly lower) and buttocks. (Link)
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Question 5 of 12
5. Question
The diagnosis of Kawasaki’s disease requires the presence of fever of at least five days duration and four other features. Of the choices below, which one is not one of the features required for diagnosis.
Correct
The diagnosis requires the presence of fever of at least five days duration and four of the following: changes in extremities (e.g. erythema, oedema, desquamation); bilateral conjunctivitis ; polymorphous rash; cervical lymphadenopathy; changes in lips and oral cavity (e.g. pharyngeal oedema, dry/fissured or swollen lips, strawberry tongue). Fever and less than four of the above features is sufficient to establish the diagnosis when echocardiography shows coronary artery disease and when other diseases with similar clinical features are excluded. Arthritis, urethritis and hepatitis may occur but are not required for diagnosis. (Link)
Incorrect
The diagnosis requires the presence of fever of at least five days duration and four of the following: changes in extremities (e.g. erythema, oedema, desquamation); bilateral conjunctivitis ; polymorphous rash; cervical lymphadenopathy; changes in lips and oral cavity (e.g. pharyngeal oedema, dry/fissured or swollen lips, strawberry tongue). Fever and less than four of the above features is sufficient to establish the diagnosis when echocardiography shows coronary artery disease and when other diseases with similar clinical features are excluded. Arthritis, urethritis and hepatitis may occur but are not required for diagnosis. (Link)
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Question 6 of 12
6. Question
The Australian national patient identity standards require at least 3 approved patient identifiers to be provided in ED patients when all of the following occur except when
Correct
National patient identity standards require at least three approved patient identifiers (UR number, Date of Birth, Name and Surname): on registration or admission; when care, therapy or other services are provided; whenever clinical handover, patient transfer or discharge documentation is generated. (Link)
Incorrect
National patient identity standards require at least three approved patient identifiers (UR number, Date of Birth, Name and Surname): on registration or admission; when care, therapy or other services are provided; whenever clinical handover, patient transfer or discharge documentation is generated. (Link)
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Question 7 of 12
7. Question
Arrange the following actions that should occur after a patient safety incident has been identified, in the correct order
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Inform the patient of the inciden
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Provide immediate medical attention
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Manage any complications
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Arrange appropriate disposition and ongoing care
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Manage staff members
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Document events, management and notifications
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Complete any appropriate safety system notifications
Correct
The usual sequence of events should be to: inform the patient of the incident; provide immediate medical attention; manage any complications; arrange appropriate disposition and ongoing care; notify staff providing ongoing care of the circumstances; manage staff members; document events, management and notifications; complete any appropriate safety system notifications. (Link)
Incorrect
The usual sequence of events should be to: inform the patient of the incident; provide immediate medical attention; manage any complications; arrange appropriate disposition and ongoing care; notify staff providing ongoing care of the circumstances; manage staff members; document events, management and notifications; complete any appropriate safety system notifications. (Link)
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Question 8 of 12
8. Question
When discussing the extent of medical treatment with the relatives of a critically ill patient in whom you believe attempts at curative treatment would be futile it is important for you to explain all of the following EXCEPT
Correct
It is important in this situation not to say you would like to withdraw care, rather change the emphasis to providing symptomatic and comforting care. It is also important not to say that there is nothing you can do – symptomatic and comforting care is an active process. (Link)
Incorrect
It is important in this situation not to say you would like to withdraw care, rather change the emphasis to providing symptomatic and comforting care. It is also important not to say that there is nothing you can do – symptomatic and comforting care is an active process. (Link)
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Question 9 of 12
9. Question
All of the following statements regarding a Bankhart lesion are correct except
Correct
A Bankart lesion is an avulsion of anterior glenoid labrum and tear of the anterior capsule which gives a rounded appearance to the anterior glenoid margin. It has a strong association with recurrent dislocations and surgical repair is usually required if present. (Link)
Incorrect
A Bankart lesion is an avulsion of anterior glenoid labrum and tear of the anterior capsule which gives a rounded appearance to the anterior glenoid margin. It has a strong association with recurrent dislocations and surgical repair is usually required if present. (Link)
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Question 10 of 12
10. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the Hill-Sachs deformity is false
Correct
The Hill-Sachs deformity is a compression fracture of the humeral head causing a deformity of the posterolateral articular surface of humerus secondary to abrasion by the glenoid margin. It is best seen on the AP film in internal rotation and often appears as a hyperdense area of bone adjacent to the articular surface. (Link)
Incorrect
The Hill-Sachs deformity is a compression fracture of the humeral head causing a deformity of the posterolateral articular surface of humerus secondary to abrasion by the glenoid margin. It is best seen on the AP film in internal rotation and often appears as a hyperdense area of bone adjacent to the articular surface. (Link)
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Question 11 of 12
11. Question
Without scapular fixation, the glenohumeral joint is in the ‘zero position’ when it is
Correct
The zero position of the shoulder is when it is abducted 165 degrees, flexed 45 degrees with the elbow supinated. With scapular fixation (placing downward pressure over the trapezius) the zero position is achieved at approximately 100-110 degrees of abduction. In the zero position, the humerus, scapula and the cone of rotator muscles are all in the same axis so a single force along the axis of humerus can overcome all other forces acting to prevent relocation. Most methods used when the arm is abducted aim to achieve this position. (Link)
Incorrect
The zero position of the shoulder is when it is abducted 165 degrees, flexed 45 degrees with the elbow supinated. With scapular fixation (placing downward pressure over the trapezius) the zero position is achieved at approximately 100-110 degrees of abduction. In the zero position, the humerus, scapula and the cone of rotator muscles are all in the same axis so a single force along the axis of humerus can overcome all other forces acting to prevent relocation. Most methods used when the arm is abducted aim to achieve this position. (Link)
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Question 12 of 12
12. Question
Match the patient safety term with it’s correct definition
Sort elements
- An event that could have resulted, or did result, in unnecessary harm to a patient
- A situation where there was significant potential for harm, but no incident occurred
- An incident which did not reach the patient
- An incident that results in harm to a patient
- An impairment of structure or function of the body
- Unexpected harm arising from a justified treatment
- A known effect that is not what is primarily intended and related to a medicine’s pharmacological properties
- An action that may prevent harm once the mechanism by which harm may occur is already in train
- The degree to which a system continuously prevents, detects, mitigates or ameliorates hazards or incidents
- No harm incident
- Contributing factor
- Unexpected harm arising from an unjustified treatment
- A known effect that is not intended unrelated to a medicine’s pharmacological properties
- Preventable
- An action that prevents an error from occurring
- Safety culture
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Patient safety incident
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Reportable circumstance
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Near miss
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Adverse event
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Harm
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Adverse drug reaction
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Adverse effect
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Mitigating factor
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Resilience
Correct 9 / 9PointsPatient safety incident is an event that could have resulted, or did result, in unnecessary harm to a patient. Reportable circumstance is a situation where there was significant potential for harm, but no incident occurred. Near miss is an incident which did not reach the patient (e.g. prescribing error detected prior to administration). No harm incident is an event reached a patient but no discernible harm resulted. Adverse event is an incident that results in harm to a patient. Harm is an impairment of structure or function of the body and/or any deleterious effect. Adverse drug reaction is an unexpected harm arising from a justified treatment. Adverse effect is a known effect that is not what is primarily intended and related to a medicine’s pharmacological properties. Preventable is considered as avoidable in the particular set of circumstances. Mitigating factor is an action or circumstance that prevents or moderates the progression of an incident towards harming a patient when the mechanism by which damage may occur is already in train, but has not yet led to the maximum possible harm. Resilience is the degree to which a system continuously prevents, detects, mitigates or ameliorates hazards or incidents.(Link)
Incorrect / 9 PointsPatient safety incident is an event that could have resulted, or did result, in unnecessary harm to a patient. Reportable circumstance is a situation where there was significant potential for harm, but no incident occurred. Near miss is an incident which did not reach the patient (e.g. prescribing error detected prior to administration). No harm incident is an event reached a patient but no discernible harm resulted. Adverse event is an incident that results in harm to a patient. Harm is an impairment of structure or function of the body and/or any deleterious effect. Adverse drug reaction is an unexpected harm arising from a justified treatment. Adverse effect is a known effect that is not what is primarily intended and related to a medicine’s pharmacological properties. Preventable is considered as avoidable in the particular set of circumstances. Mitigating factor is an action or circumstance that prevents or moderates the progression of an incident towards harming a patient when the mechanism by which damage may occur is already in train, but has not yet led to the maximum possible harm. Resilience is the degree to which a system continuously prevents, detects, mitigates or ameliorates hazards or incidents.(Link)