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This is a 20 MCQ quiz on some of the recent updates to the manual. We suggest reviewing the updates during December 2014 before taking this quiz.
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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Serum IgE is most useful for
Correct
Serum IgE is most useful for the detection of sensitisation, not confirmation of anaphylaxis. As of December 2014 there was no jumper ant venom IgE assay available, and the sensitivity of IgE for the detection of latex sensitisation was only about 60%. The sensitivity and specificity of peanut IgE are around 95%. (link)
Incorrect
Serum IgE is most useful for the detection of sensitisation, not confirmation of anaphylaxis. As of December 2014 there was no jumper ant venom IgE assay available, and the sensitivity of IgE for the detection of latex sensitisation was only about 60%. The sensitivity and specificity of peanut IgE are around 95%. (link)
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
In the key elements of the onsite response to a major casualty incident described by the acronym CSCATTT
Correct
The key elements of the onsite response to a major casualty incident are: C – Command and Control; S – Safety; C – Communications; A – Assessment; T – Triage; T – Treatment, T – Transport. (link)
Incorrect
The key elements of the onsite response to a major casualty incident are: C – Command and Control; S – Safety; C – Communications; A – Assessment; T – Triage; T – Treatment, T – Transport. (link)
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
Which one of the following features would you expect the least in a patient with a nasal septal haematoma
Correct
Septal haematomas are usually bilateral with nasal obstruction present in 95% and rhinorrhoea in 25% of cases. The haematoma is usually soft when (gently) probed with a cotton bud, whereas a deviated septum is hard. (link)
Incorrect
Septal haematomas are usually bilateral with nasal obstruction present in 95% and rhinorrhoea in 25% of cases. The haematoma is usually soft when (gently) probed with a cotton bud, whereas a deviated septum is hard. (link)
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Which one of the following is a feature of hypomania
Correct
In distinction to mania, the increased activity in hypomania is goal directed, rather than aimless. Hypomanic episodes usually only last for weeks. The presence of psychosis or flight of ideas suggests mania. (link)
Incorrect
In distinction to mania, the increased activity in hypomania is goal directed, rather than aimless. Hypomanic episodes usually only last for weeks. The presence of psychosis or flight of ideas suggests mania. (link)
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Factitious disorder is characterised by
Correct
Factitious disorder is an intentional production or feigning of physical or psychological signs or symptoms associated with identified deception. The motivation for the behaviour is to assume the sick role. External incentives for the behaviour (e.g. economic gain, avoiding legal responsibility, or improving physical well-being, as in malingering) may be absent i.e. no secondary gain present (as occurs with conversion disorder). The behaviour is not better accounted for by another mental disorder. Munchausen’s syndrome is considered only as a subform of the disorder. (link)
Incorrect
Factitious disorder is an intentional production or feigning of physical or psychological signs or symptoms associated with identified deception. The motivation for the behaviour is to assume the sick role. External incentives for the behaviour (e.g. economic gain, avoiding legal responsibility, or improving physical well-being, as in malingering) may be absent i.e. no secondary gain present (as occurs with conversion disorder). The behaviour is not better accounted for by another mental disorder. Munchausen’s syndrome is considered only as a subform of the disorder. (link)
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Which one of the following is not a desirable active listening skill
Correct
Active listening skills include: making eye contact; giving your complete attention; asking questions; summarising frequently; checking understanding; acknowledging statements (e.g. ‘uh-hum’); appearing interested. Interrupt only when necessary, and never at the beginning. (link)
Incorrect
Active listening skills include: making eye contact; giving your complete attention; asking questions; summarising frequently; checking understanding; acknowledging statements (e.g. ‘uh-hum’); appearing interested. Interrupt only when necessary, and never at the beginning. (link)
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Which one of the following statements about perineal trauma following vaginal delivery is incorrect
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
The test characteristics of a CSF lactate of 3.0mmol/L in a 24 year old man with a headache and fever for the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis is approximately
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Intra-arterial clot retrieval in acute ischaemic stroke
Correct
Clot retrieval in acute stroke usually requires advanced perfusion imaging and is appropriate for the minority of patients with acute stroke. It is of proven benefit in large vessel anterior circulation stroke, but not proven in posterior circulation stroke (although likely to be of benefit). Thrombolytics are given concomitantly and clot retrieval may be effective up to 8 hours following stroke onset. (link)
Incorrect
Clot retrieval in acute stroke usually requires advanced perfusion imaging and is appropriate for the minority of patients with acute stroke. It is of proven benefit in large vessel anterior circulation stroke, but not proven in posterior circulation stroke (although likely to be of benefit). Thrombolytics are given concomitantly and clot retrieval may be effective up to 8 hours following stroke onset. (link)
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
A CRP of 60mg/L in an adult, immunocompetent patient who may have community acquired pneumonia suggests
Correct
A CRP can be used to determine whether antibiotics should be given in cases when the diagnosis is in doubt. < 20mg/L – do not routinely offer antibiotic therapy; 20-100mg/L – consider a delayed antibiotic prescription; >100mg/L – prescribe antibiotics. < 100 mg/L has high NPV for severe illness and mortality. (link)
Incorrect
A CRP can be used to determine whether antibiotics should be given in cases when the diagnosis is in doubt. < 20mg/L – do not routinely offer antibiotic therapy; 20-100mg/L – consider a delayed antibiotic prescription; >100mg/L – prescribe antibiotics. < 100 mg/L has high NPV for severe illness and mortality. (link)
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Patients usually suitable for discharge with CAP have a suitable psychosocial situation and no more than one of the following
Correct
Patients usually suitable for discharge with CAP have a suitable psychosocial situation and no more than one of the following: temperature higher than 37.5°C; respiratory rate ≥ 24 breaths per minute; heart rate > 100 beats per minute; sBP ≤ 100 mm Hg; SpO2< 90% on room air; abnormal mental status; inability to eat without assistance. (link)
Incorrect
Patients usually suitable for discharge with CAP have a suitable psychosocial situation and no more than one of the following: temperature higher than 37.5°C; respiratory rate ≥ 24 breaths per minute; heart rate > 100 beats per minute; sBP ≤ 100 mm Hg; SpO2< 90% on room air; abnormal mental status; inability to eat without assistance. (link)
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
At the time of diagnosis of ulcerative colitis, which statement regarding the distribution of involvement is incorrect
Correct
Colonic involvement in ulcerative colitis begins at the rectum and proceeds proximally in a continuous fashion. The rectum involved in 95% of cases and there are no skip lesions. At the time of diagnosis 30–50% confined to the rectum or the sigmoid colon (distal colitis), 20–30% left-sided colitis, 20% have pancolitis. (link)
Incorrect
Colonic involvement in ulcerative colitis begins at the rectum and proceeds proximally in a continuous fashion. The rectum involved in 95% of cases and there are no skip lesions. At the time of diagnosis 30–50% confined to the rectum or the sigmoid colon (distal colitis), 20–30% left-sided colitis, 20% have pancolitis. (link)
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
The most common abnormality of the aortic arch is
Correct
There are many anatomical variants of the aortic arch. The most common is separate origins of the innominate, left common carotid, and left subclavian arteries. The second most common is a common origin for the innominate and left common carotid arteries. Another variant is when the left common carotid artery originates separately from the innominate artery. A single brachiocephalic trunk originating from the aortic arch that divides into subclavian arteries or each side and a bicarotid trunk that then divides into the right and left common carotid is called a bovine arch. (link)
Incorrect
There are many anatomical variants of the aortic arch. The most common is separate origins of the innominate, left common carotid, and left subclavian arteries. The second most common is a common origin for the innominate and left common carotid arteries. Another variant is when the left common carotid artery originates separately from the innominate artery. A single brachiocephalic trunk originating from the aortic arch that divides into subclavian arteries or each side and a bicarotid trunk that then divides into the right and left common carotid is called a bovine arch. (link)
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
A 28 year old woman presents with an episode of agitation, vomiting, thigh, back and abdominal pain, shoulder weakness and hypertension. The cause most suggested by these features is
Correct
These features are most suggestive of acute porphyria. The presence of localised neurological features does not suggest cyclical vomiting syndrome, Wilson’s disease or lead poisoning. (link)
Incorrect
These features are most suggestive of acute porphyria. The presence of localised neurological features does not suggest cyclical vomiting syndrome, Wilson’s disease or lead poisoning. (link)
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
The most common cause of meningitis in children 30-90 days of age is
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
The minimum number of colony forming units on urine culture from a suprapubic aspirate that is considered indicative of UTI is
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
All of the following are indications for an ultrasound of the urinary tract in a child with a UTI EXCEPT
Correct
Indications for renal USS in UTI include: first UTI and no prior antenatal renal tract US; concurrent bacteraemia; < 3 months of age; urine culture with atypical organisms (e.g. Staphlococcus aureus or Pseudomonas); lack of clinical response to 48 hours of antibiotic if sensitive organism; renal impairment or significant electrolyte derangement; abdominal mass; poor urinary stream. (link)
Incorrect
Indications for renal USS in UTI include: first UTI and no prior antenatal renal tract US; concurrent bacteraemia; < 3 months of age; urine culture with atypical organisms (e.g. Staphlococcus aureus or Pseudomonas); lack of clinical response to 48 hours of antibiotic if sensitive organism; renal impairment or significant electrolyte derangement; abdominal mass; poor urinary stream. (link)
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
A Powers ratio (the distance between basion and spinolaminal line at C1 divided by the distance between the middle of the anterior interspinal line at the middle of the anterior arch of C1 to the posterior margin of the foramen magnum) of 1.2 on a cervical spine radiograph in an adult suggests
Correct
The Powers ratio is the distance between basion and spinolaminal line at C1 divided by the distance between the middle of the anterior interspinal line at the middle of the anterior arch of C1 to the posterior margin of the foramen magnum. The normal ratio is approximately 1, however an abnormal ratio is only 60% sensitive for fracture detection. A ratio > 1 indicates anterior subluxation and a ratio < 1 suggests: posterior atlanto-occipital dislocation; and odontoid fracture; an atlas ring fracture. (link)
Incorrect
The Powers ratio is the distance between basion and spinolaminal line at C1 divided by the distance between the middle of the anterior interspinal line at the middle of the anterior arch of C1 to the posterior margin of the foramen magnum. The normal ratio is approximately 1, however an abnormal ratio is only 60% sensitive for fracture detection. A ratio > 1 indicates anterior subluxation and a ratio < 1 suggests: posterior atlanto-occipital dislocation; and odontoid fracture; an atlas ring fracture. (link)
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Normal atlanto-occipital alignment in an adult is characterised by all of the following EXCEPT
Correct
Normal atlanto-occipital alignment in an adult is characterised by: a line drawn along the clivus (Wachenheim’s line) normally just intercepts the posterior tip of the dens; continuation of the spinolaminar line crosses the posterior margin of the foramen magnum (opisthion); the posterior axial interval (perpendicular distance between the basion (anterior border of foramen magnum) and posterior axial line (cranial extension of posterior intervertebral line) should be < 12mm when the basion is anterior to posterior axial line or < 4mm when posterior to posterior axial line. (link)
Incorrect
Normal atlanto-occipital alignment in an adult is characterised by: a line drawn along the clivus (Wachenheim’s line) normally just intercepts the posterior tip of the dens; continuation of the spinolaminar line crosses the posterior margin of the foramen magnum (opisthion); the posterior axial interval (perpendicular distance between the basion (anterior border of foramen magnum) and posterior axial line (cranial extension of posterior intervertebral line) should be < 12mm when the basion is anterior to posterior axial line or < 4mm when posterior to posterior axial line. (link)
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
The normal basiodental interval (distance from basion to tip of dens) on a lateral Cx spine radiograph in an adult should be