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This is a 15 MCQ quiz on some of the recent updates to the manual. We suggest reviewing the recent updates before taking this quiz.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
Which one of the following tests is considered the “gold standard’ test of platelet function.
Correct
Light transmission aggregometry is considered the gold standard of platelet function testing, however is complex, time consuming and results are not rapidly available. Flow cytometry is used in the investigation of Glanzmann thrombasthenia, Bernard–Soulier Syndrome and Scott syndrome, as well as to investigate abnormalities in the collagen (GpVI and GpIa/IIa) and thrombin receptors, but is not a test of global platelet function. The skin bleeding time is a global test of coagulation, in which platelet function plays an important part, however is no longer recommended as it is highly dependent on operator technique, influenced by age, gender, haematocrit, vascular pattern, skin thickness and skin temperature, hence has poor reproducibility, sensitivity and specificity. The P2Y12 receptor occupancy assay only tests the efficacy of anti-platelet agents that bind that receptor.
Incorrect
Light transmission aggregometry is considered the gold standard of platelet function testing, however is complex, time consuming and results are not rapidly available. Flow cytometry is used in the investigation of Glanzmann thrombasthenia, Bernard–Soulier Syndrome and Scott syndrome, as well as to investigate abnormalities in the collagen (GpVI and GpIa/IIa) and thrombin receptors, but is not a test of global platelet function. The skin bleeding time is a global test of coagulation, in which platelet function plays an important part, however is no longer recommended as it is highly dependent on operator technique, influenced by age, gender, haematocrit, vascular pattern, skin thickness and skin temperature, hence has poor reproducibility, sensitivity and specificity. The P2Y12 receptor occupancy assay only tests the efficacy of anti-platelet agents that bind that receptor.
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
The role of beta blockers in patients with STEMI is best described by which one of the following statements.
Correct
Administration of beta blockers within 24 hours reduces infarct size, reinfarction and mortality by 50% when used alone, however there are less convincing data to support their use in the first few hours following STEMI when other standard therapies are used. As a result, oral administration is usually recommended within the first 24 hours in STEMI. However, the randomised, blinded METOCARD-CNIC trial published in 2013 demonstrated about a 5% reduction in infarct size in anterior MI when beta blockers were used pre PCI and within 6 hours of symptom onset (in selected patients). Beta blockers also decrease the rate of cardiac rupture (ISIS 1) and may worsen symptoms in patients with LVF but probably reduce mortality (ISIS 3), rather than increasing it..(Link)
Incorrect
Administration of beta blockers within 24 hours reduces infarct size, reinfarction and mortality by 50% when used alone, however there are less convincing data to support their use in the first few hours following STEMI when other standard therapies are used. As a result, oral administration is usually recommended within the first 24 hours in STEMI. However, the randomised, blinded METOCARD-CNIC trial published in 2013 demonstrated about a 5% reduction in infarct size in anterior MI when beta blockers were used pre PCI and within 6 hours of symptom onset (in selected patients). Beta blockers also decrease the rate of cardiac rupture (ISIS 1) and may worsen symptoms in patients with LVF but probably reduce mortality (ISIS 3), rather than increasing it..(Link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
When should immediate antibiotic treatment be started in an immunocompetent patient with sore throat
Correct
Indications for immediate antibiotics for patients with sore throat include: patients 2-25 years of age in areas of high incidence of rheumatic fever; patients with history of rheumatic heart disease at any age; when any one of the features of the FeverPAIN score are present (Fever during previous 24 hours, Purulence, Attend rapidly (within three days), Inflamed tonsils, No cough/coryza); scarlet fever; systemically unwell; peritonsillar cellulitis or abscess; and a positive throat culture or rapid antigen test. (Link)
Incorrect
Indications for immediate antibiotics for patients with sore throat include: patients 2-25 years of age in areas of high incidence of rheumatic fever; patients with history of rheumatic heart disease at any age; when any one of the features of the FeverPAIN score are present (Fever during previous 24 hours, Purulence, Attend rapidly (within three days), Inflamed tonsils, No cough/coryza); scarlet fever; systemically unwell; peritonsillar cellulitis or abscess; and a positive throat culture or rapid antigen test. (Link)
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding antibiotic therapy in a patient with febrile neutropenia is incorrect.
Correct
IV antibiotics should be administered as soon as immediate cultures (peripheral blood, other easily obtainable site) have been collected and not delayed whilst whilst waiting for MSU or vascular access catheter cultures. This should be within 30 minutes of arrival if systemically unwell or within 1 hour if clinically well. Suitable regimens include (ticarcillin 3g + clavulinic acid 0.1g (Timentin 3.1g) (50mg/kg in children) + gentamicin 7 mg/kg IV once daily OR
piperacillin 4g + tazobactam 0.5g (Tazocin 4.5g) (100mg/kg in children) 6-8 hourly OR a 3rd/4th generation cephalosporin (ceftazidime 1 g + aminoglycoside). Gentamicin may be omitted if the patient appears systemically well. Vancomycin 1.5g (20mg/kg in children) should be added if: the patient is hypotensive or in shock; there is suspected vascular line infection; or known MRSA carriage. Metronidazole 500mg IV 12 hourly should also be added if abdominal or perineal infection suspected. (Link)Incorrect
IV antibiotics should be administered as soon as immediate cultures (peripheral blood, other easily obtainable site) have been collected and not delayed whilst whilst waiting for MSU or vascular access catheter cultures. This should be within 30 minutes of arrival if systemically unwell or within 1 hour if clinically well. Suitable regimens include (ticarcillin 3g + clavulinic acid 0.1g (Timentin 3.1g) (50mg/kg in children) + gentamicin 7 mg/kg IV once daily OR
piperacillin 4g + tazobactam 0.5g (Tazocin 4.5g) (100mg/kg in children) 6-8 hourly OR a 3rd/4th generation cephalosporin (ceftazidime 1 g + aminoglycoside). Gentamicin may be omitted if the patient appears systemically well. Vancomycin 1.5g (20mg/kg in children) should be added if: the patient is hypotensive or in shock; there is suspected vascular line infection; or known MRSA carriage. Metronidazole 500mg IV 12 hourly should also be added if abdominal or perineal infection suspected. (Link) -
Question 5 of 15
5. Question
The most common cause of an isolated platelet count of 25,000 X 10*9/L is
Correct
The most common causes of an isolated thrombocytopenia are ITP and drug induced thrombocytopenia. Thrombocytopenia of pregnancy does not cause counts of < 70 and Dengue and portal hypertension rarely do. (Link)
Incorrect
The most common causes of an isolated thrombocytopenia are ITP and drug induced thrombocytopenia. Thrombocytopenia of pregnancy does not cause counts of < 70 and Dengue and portal hypertension rarely do. (Link)
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
Which one of the following investigation results would you least expect in patients with ITP
Correct
Expected investigation findings in ITP include: isolated thrombocytopenia; an increased IPF; a normal peripheral blood film; a normal extended coagulation profile; and the presence of platelet bound antibodies in about 50% of cases (i.e. a negative test does not exclude the diagnosis) (Link)
Incorrect
Expected investigation findings in ITP include: isolated thrombocytopenia; an increased IPF; a normal peripheral blood film; a normal extended coagulation profile; and the presence of platelet bound antibodies in about 50% of cases (i.e. a negative test does not exclude the diagnosis) (Link)
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
Which one of the following nasal packing types and maximal allowable time prior to pack removal is incorrect.
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
The expected reversion rate from ventricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm from a single, 200J biphasic defibrillation applied immediately after the onset of ventricular fibrillation is approximately
Correct
A single, immediate defibrillation will revert approximately 95% of cases of VF. The reversion rate drops substantially with each passing minute. (Link)
Incorrect
A single, immediate defibrillation will revert approximately 95% of cases of VF. The reversion rate drops substantially with each passing minute. (Link)
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding PEA is incorrect
Correct
PEA is defined as the presence of spontaneous organized cardiac electric activity in the absence of blood flow sufficient to maintain consciousness and the absence of a rapid spontaneous return of adequate organ perfusion and consciousness (otherwise it would be syncope!). The proportion of out of hospital cardiac arrests due to PEA is increasing in frequency compared to VF/pulseless VT and now accounts for approximately 40% of cases. Approximately half of all cases of PEA are thought to have been caused by a primary cardiac event and approximately 30% of survivors of PEA have acute coronary occlusions. There is a higher incidence in patients with underlying pulmonary disease, women and increasing age. (Link)
Incorrect
PEA is defined as the presence of spontaneous organized cardiac electric activity in the absence of blood flow sufficient to maintain consciousness and the absence of a rapid spontaneous return of adequate organ perfusion and consciousness (otherwise it would be syncope!). The proportion of out of hospital cardiac arrests due to PEA is increasing in frequency compared to VF/pulseless VT and now accounts for approximately 40% of cases. Approximately half of all cases of PEA are thought to have been caused by a primary cardiac event and approximately 30% of survivors of PEA have acute coronary occlusions. There is a higher incidence in patients with underlying pulmonary disease, women and increasing age. (Link)
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
The percentage of survivors of out of hospital cardiac arrest who are subsequently able to live independently is approximately
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding closed chest compression is incorrect
Correct
Effective chest compression is the single most important aspect of BLS as it aims to maintain neurological and cardiac function whilst awaiting arrival of AED or ALS capability. Interruption of chest compression should be minimised at all costs as aortic pressure (hence coronary perfusion pressure) drops rapidly after cessation and recovers progressively more slowly after each interruption. Also, the right ventricle progressively dilates with interruption of chest compressions, making defibrillation less effective. Compression rates > 120 are associated with a reduction in compression depth. (Link)
Incorrect
Effective chest compression is the single most important aspect of BLS as it aims to maintain neurological and cardiac function whilst awaiting arrival of AED or ALS capability. Interruption of chest compression should be minimised at all costs as aortic pressure (hence coronary perfusion pressure) drops rapidly after cessation and recovers progressively more slowly after each interruption. Also, the right ventricle progressively dilates with interruption of chest compressions, making defibrillation less effective. Compression rates > 120 are associated with a reduction in compression depth. (Link)
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the frontal p wave axis on the ECG is incorrect
Correct
The normal frontal plane p wave axis is 0 – 75 degrees. An abnormal axis associated with abnormal cardiac chamber size and position, and increased mortality due to cardiac or respiratory disease. The p wave axis is often abnormal in COPD. (Link)
Incorrect
The normal frontal plane p wave axis is 0 – 75 degrees. An abnormal axis associated with abnormal cardiac chamber size and position, and increased mortality due to cardiac or respiratory disease. The p wave axis is often abnormal in COPD. (Link)
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
The potentially fatal dose of elemental iron is
Correct
Elemental iron doses of < 20 mg/kg have little risk of toxicity, 20-60 mg/kg moderate risk of toxicity, > 60-90 mg/kg have a high risk of toxicity, < 130 mg/kg is potentially fatal and 200 mg/kg is the approximate median fatal dose. (Link)
Incorrect
Elemental iron doses of < 20 mg/kg have little risk of toxicity, 20-60 mg/kg moderate risk of toxicity, > 60-90 mg/kg have a high risk of toxicity, < 130 mg/kg is potentially fatal and 200 mg/kg is the approximate median fatal dose. (Link)
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding carbonyl iron is incorrect
Correct
Carbonyl iron is non-ionic and associated with lower toxicity, due to lack of directly corrosive properties. Although it contains 100% elemental iron, there have been no cases of serious toxicity following ingestion reported yet. (Link)
Incorrect
Carbonyl iron is non-ionic and associated with lower toxicity, due to lack of directly corrosive properties. Although it contains 100% elemental iron, there have been no cases of serious toxicity following ingestion reported yet. (Link)
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
The most sensitive symptom of iron toxicity following oral ingestion is
Correct
Vomiting is the most sensitive indicator of toxicity. It usually occurs within 20 minutes of ingestion, occurs within 80 minutes in 90% of cases and the absence of vomiting by 6 hours essentially rules out serious toxicity. (Link)
Incorrect
Vomiting is the most sensitive indicator of toxicity. It usually occurs within 20 minutes of ingestion, occurs within 80 minutes in 90% of cases and the absence of vomiting by 6 hours essentially rules out serious toxicity. (Link)