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This is a 15 MCQ quiz on some of the recent updates to the manual. We suggest reviewing the recent updates before taking this quiz.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
The current (2014) recommended antibiotic therapy for an immunocompetent child < 2months of age who presents with community acquired sepsis in whom an LP has not been performed, and who has no known contraindications to therapy is
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
The current (2014) recommended antibiotic therapy for an immunocompetent adult who presents with community acquired sepsis in a non tropical area, but in whom their renal function is unknown, and who has no known contraindications to therapy is
Correct
In this situation gentamicin 4 – 7 mg/kg IV for the first dose AND flucloxacillin 2 g IV 4-hourly should be given. The gentamicin dose should be reduced in patients with known or likely pre-existing renal impairment (e.g. >80 years of age) to 4-5mg/Kg, however do not delay gentamicin administration to determine renal function. In patients hypersensitive to penicillins, replace flucloxacillin with cephazolin 2 g IV, 6-hourly. In patients with immediate hypersensitivity to penicillins, or likely MRSA replace flucloxacillin with vancomycin 25 -30 mg/kg IV as a loading dose. In patients at risk of infection with a multidrug-resistant Gram-negative organism or in tropical regions of Australia where infection with Burkholderia pseudomallei is possible use meropenum 1g IV 8 hourly. (link)
Incorrect
In this situation gentamicin 4 – 7 mg/kg IV for the first dose AND flucloxacillin 2 g IV 4-hourly should be given. The gentamicin dose should be reduced in patients with known or likely pre-existing renal impairment (e.g. >80 years of age) to 4-5mg/Kg, however do not delay gentamicin administration to determine renal function. In patients hypersensitive to penicillins, replace flucloxacillin with cephazolin 2 g IV, 6-hourly. In patients with immediate hypersensitivity to penicillins, or likely MRSA replace flucloxacillin with vancomycin 25 -30 mg/kg IV as a loading dose. In patients at risk of infection with a multidrug-resistant Gram-negative organism or in tropical regions of Australia where infection with Burkholderia pseudomallei is possible use meropenum 1g IV 8 hourly. (link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
A staff member who has documented immunity to Hep B after immunisation sustains a needle stick injury whilst suturing a bleeding wound in a patient known to be Hep B e antigen positive. Which of the following is the correct course of action to prevent Hep B infection
Correct
People who have documented HepB immunity do not require any further therapy to prevent Hep B infection, regardless of the infectivity of the source. (link)
Incorrect
People who have documented HepB immunity do not require any further therapy to prevent Hep B infection, regardless of the infectivity of the source. (link)
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
The CXR finding you would least expect in an infant with an endobronchial foreign body on the right side is
Correct
A CXR in an aspirated endobronchial foreign body: may demonstrate the foreign body, but may also be normal; may demonstrate features of gas trapping if foreign body causes endobronchial obstruction demonstrated by failure of the affected sided to deflate on expiration or when patient placed on affected side. (link)
Incorrect
A CXR in an aspirated endobronchial foreign body: may demonstrate the foreign body, but may also be normal; may demonstrate features of gas trapping if foreign body causes endobronchial obstruction demonstrated by failure of the affected sided to deflate on expiration or when patient placed on affected side. (link)
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding GGT levels in suspected chronic alcohol overuse is correct
Correct
An elevated GGT alone is 50 – 90% sensitive for chronic alcohol abuse and is < 50% specific. It is >90% specific if combined with elevated levels of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin. (link)
Incorrect
An elevated GGT alone is 50 – 90% sensitive for chronic alcohol abuse and is < 50% specific. It is >90% specific if combined with elevated levels of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin. (link)
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
Which one of the following statements best describes the test characteristics of the MCV for the detection of chronic heavy alcohol use.
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding conduct disorder is incorrect
Correct
Few children meet the full diagnostic criteria of conduct disorder prior to 10 years of age, however some features of conduct disorder are usually evident by early school age such as aggressive tendencies, impulsivity or failure to comply with requests. Features overlap with ADHD and oppositional–defiant disorder. Antisocial personality disorder develops in approximately 45% of patients. (link)
Incorrect
Few children meet the full diagnostic criteria of conduct disorder prior to 10 years of age, however some features of conduct disorder are usually evident by early school age such as aggressive tendencies, impulsivity or failure to comply with requests. Features overlap with ADHD and oppositional–defiant disorder. Antisocial personality disorder develops in approximately 45% of patients. (link)
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
The risk of contrast causing nephropathy following intravenous contrast for a CT scan in a patient with a creatinine clearance of 30ml/min is approximately
Correct
It is estimated that in patients with an eGFR of 30mL/min CIN occurs in about 15% of cases in patients
who have had IV contrast for a CT scan, but this is not changed by contrast administration. The estimated risk of requiring dialysis is only approximately 0.12%. (link)Incorrect
It is estimated that in patients with an eGFR of 30mL/min CIN occurs in about 15% of cases in patients
who have had IV contrast for a CT scan, but this is not changed by contrast administration. The estimated risk of requiring dialysis is only approximately 0.12%. (link) -
Question 9 of 15
9. Question
The risk of requiring dialysis following intravenous contrast for a CT scan in a patient with a creatinine clearance of 30ml/min is approximately
Correct
The risk of requiring dialysis following intravenous contrast for a CT scan in a patient with a creatinine clearance of 30ml/min is approximately 0.12% (link)
Incorrect
The risk of requiring dialysis following intravenous contrast for a CT scan in a patient with a creatinine clearance of 30ml/min is approximately 0.12% (link)
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the risk of alcohol withdrawal is incorrect
Correct
90% of people with hazardous drinking are not alcohol dependent, so are not at risk of withdrawal. Withdrawal is likely with abstinence if > 20 standard alcoholic drinks per day. Men are at risk if consumption > 80g/day or AUDIT score >4 and women are at risk if consumption > 60g/day or AUDIT score > 3. (link)
Incorrect
90% of people with hazardous drinking are not alcohol dependent, so are not at risk of withdrawal. Withdrawal is likely with abstinence if > 20 standard alcoholic drinks per day. Men are at risk if consumption > 80g/day or AUDIT score >4 and women are at risk if consumption > 60g/day or AUDIT score > 3. (link)
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
Compared with THC, synthetic cannibinoids would not be expected to cause an increased risk of
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
Which one of the statements regarding the use of zuclopenthixol for the treatment of a violently psychotic patient is incorrect
Correct
Zuclopenthixol (accuphase) is given as a 50-150 mg IM (1-3mL) injection and can be be repeated in 1-2 days, with a maximum of 4 doses or a total dose of 400mg. It has an onset of action at 2-4 hours, causes maximum sedation at 8 hours and has a 48 hour duration of effect. It is not usually used in drug naive patients and is not intended for long-term use. (link)
Incorrect
Zuclopenthixol (accuphase) is given as a 50-150 mg IM (1-3mL) injection and can be be repeated in 1-2 days, with a maximum of 4 doses or a total dose of 400mg. It has an onset of action at 2-4 hours, causes maximum sedation at 8 hours and has a 48 hour duration of effect. It is not usually used in drug naive patients and is not intended for long-term use. (link)
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
The presence of a bulging fissure sign on CXR is most strongly associated with infection caused by
Correct
The bulging fissure sign on CXR represents expansive lobar consolidation causing fissural bulging by large amounts of inflammatory exudate. It is classically associated with right upper lobe consolidation due to Klebsiella pneumonia, however is also common in pneumococcal pneumonia. (link)
Incorrect
The bulging fissure sign on CXR represents expansive lobar consolidation causing fissural bulging by large amounts of inflammatory exudate. It is classically associated with right upper lobe consolidation due to Klebsiella pneumonia, however is also common in pneumococcal pneumonia. (link)
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
Under load, the clavicle in a normal adult AC joint may move superiorly up to
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
The upper limit of normal for the scapholunate interosseous distance in an adult is