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This is a 20 MCQ quiz on some of the updates to the manual in January and February 2015. We suggest reviewing the recent updates before taking this quiz.
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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Which one of the following descriptions best describes a Type I Hangman’s fracture
Correct
Type I Hangmans fracture accounts for 65% of cases. It is a hair-line fracture but the C2-3 disc is normal and has > 90% fusion rate with non operative external immobilisation. Type II injuries account for 30% of cases, it is a displaced fracture of C2 with a disrupted C2-3 disc and is unstable. Type III injuries comprise only 5% of cases and involve a displaced fracture of C2, C2-3 bilateral interfacet dislocation and is severely unstable. (link)
Incorrect
Type I Hangmans fracture accounts for 65% of cases. It is a hair-line fracture but the C2-3 disc is normal and has > 90% fusion rate with non operative external immobilisation. Type II injuries account for 30% of cases, it is a displaced fracture of C2 with a disrupted C2-3 disc and is unstable. Type III injuries comprise only 5% of cases and involve a displaced fracture of C2, C2-3 bilateral interfacet dislocation and is severely unstable. (link)
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
PEP is indicated in which one of the following situations
Correct
PEP is recommended in source HIV status unknown-receptive or insertive anal intercourse but not recommended in the following situations.
Vaginal or oral intercourse: with source from a low prevalence country (e.g. Australia or NZ); in HIV positive source without detectable viral load; non blood contamination of mucous membrane or non intact skin exposure (unless source has detectable viral load).Or in HIV unknown source: needlestick from a discarded needle; bite or clenched fist injury; percutaneous, mucosal or cutaneous exposure to urine or saliva (link)
Incorrect
PEP is recommended in source HIV status unknown-receptive or insertive anal intercourse but not recommended in the following situations.
Vaginal or oral intercourse: with source from a low prevalence country (e.g. Australia or NZ); in HIV positive source without detectable viral load; non blood contamination of mucous membrane or non intact skin exposure (unless source has detectable viral load).Or in HIV unknown source: needlestick from a discarded needle; bite or clenched fist injury; percutaneous, mucosal or cutaneous exposure to urine or saliva (link)
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
Which one of the following statements about patient streaming is incorrect
Correct
Patient streaming involves selecting types of patients to be seen in different areas of the Department or by different types of practitioners (e.g. Nurse practitioners). Efficiency gains may be achieved by concentrating resources for processes commonly required for the stream in the appropriate area (e.g. suture material, casting material, nurse practitioner in ambulatory care zone). Effectiveness may be improved by concentrating expertise in an area where it is most required (e.g. resuscitation team), however streaming necessitates separate queues for each stream which may reduce efficiency if any stream is overwhelmed or under utilised and control of the streams vitally important. (link)
Incorrect
Patient streaming involves selecting types of patients to be seen in different areas of the Department or by different types of practitioners (e.g. Nurse practitioners). Efficiency gains may be achieved by concentrating resources for processes commonly required for the stream in the appropriate area (e.g. suture material, casting material, nurse practitioner in ambulatory care zone). Effectiveness may be improved by concentrating expertise in an area where it is most required (e.g. resuscitation team), however streaming necessitates separate queues for each stream which may reduce efficiency if any stream is overwhelmed or under utilised and control of the streams vitally important. (link)
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Metastases are present at the time of diagnosis in ovarian carcinoma in approximately
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Which one of the following treatments for influenza is able to be given intravenously
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
The test characteristics of plain CT for the diagnosis of ischaemic stroke within 6 hours of onset are best described by
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Which one of the following is not one of the Australian National Quality standards.
Correct
The Australian national quality standards are: Governance for Safety and Quality in Health Service Organisations; Partnering with Consumers; Preventing and Controlling Healthcare Associated Infections; Medication Safety; Patient Identification and Procedure Matching; Clinical Handover; Blood and Blood Products; Preventing and Managing Pressure Injuries; Recognising and Responding to Clinical Deterioration in Acute Health Care; Preventing Falls and Harm from Falls. (link)
Incorrect
The Australian national quality standards are: Governance for Safety and Quality in Health Service Organisations; Partnering with Consumers; Preventing and Controlling Healthcare Associated Infections; Medication Safety; Patient Identification and Procedure Matching; Clinical Handover; Blood and Blood Products; Preventing and Managing Pressure Injuries; Recognising and Responding to Clinical Deterioration in Acute Health Care; Preventing Falls and Harm from Falls. (link)
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Which one of the following is not an ethical principle of medical practice
Correct
Professional ethical principles include: ensuring the interests of patients are not be compromised by market forces, societal pressures or administrative issues; patient autonomy – let the competent patient or substitute decide; beneficence – try to do good; non-maleficence – try to do no harm; distributive justice – try to share available resources as fairly as possible between patients. (link)
Incorrect
Professional ethical principles include: ensuring the interests of patients are not be compromised by market forces, societal pressures or administrative issues; patient autonomy – let the competent patient or substitute decide; beneficence – try to do good; non-maleficence – try to do no harm; distributive justice – try to share available resources as fairly as possible between patients. (link)
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Medication reconciliation is best described as
Correct
The process of obtaining, verifying and documenting an accurate list of a patient’s current medications on admission and comparing this list to the admission, transfer, and/or discharge medication orders to identify and resolve discrepancies. At the end of the episode of care the verified information is transferred to the next care provider. (link)
Incorrect
The process of obtaining, verifying and documenting an accurate list of a patient’s current medications on admission and comparing this list to the admission, transfer, and/or discharge medication orders to identify and resolve discrepancies. At the end of the episode of care the verified information is transferred to the next care provider. (link)
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
In neonatal resuscitation IPPV should be commenced in all of the following situations except
Correct
IPPV is indicated for: apnoea for 30 seconds; gasping breaths at any time; heart rate < 100/min. after 30 seconds of stimulation. An SpO2 of < 90 would be considered normal for at least 10 minutes following delivery. (link)
Incorrect
IPPV is indicated for: apnoea for 30 seconds; gasping breaths at any time; heart rate < 100/min. after 30 seconds of stimulation. An SpO2 of < 90 would be considered normal for at least 10 minutes following delivery. (link)
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
An appropriate tidal volume when using IPPV to resuscitate a term neonate is
Correct
Tidal volumes required for IPPV are only 25-30mL in a term newborn, which is only about 1/8th of volume of the self inflating neonatal bag. (link)
Incorrect
Tidal volumes required for IPPV are only 25-30mL in a term newborn, which is only about 1/8th of volume of the self inflating neonatal bag. (link)
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
The correct length of insertion of an emergency umbilical vein catheter is
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
Neonatal jaundice is usually considered pathological if
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Which one of the following is a cause of conjugated bilirubinaemia
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Patients with bacterial tracheitis usually
Correct
Patients with bacterial tracheitis usually have had an URTI for a few days, then develop high fever, neck pain and cough which is often dry. They are unwell looking, but surprisingly often prefer to lie flat. (link)
Incorrect
Patients with bacterial tracheitis usually have had an URTI for a few days, then develop high fever, neck pain and cough which is often dry. They are unwell looking, but surprisingly often prefer to lie flat. (link)
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
The earliest of the following signs of rabies is
Correct
Early features of rabies include: paraesthesia around bite site; neuropathic pain from region of the bite; intense pruritus at the bite site progressing to involve the limb or side of the face; myoedema (sustained contraction of the muscle elicited by being struck by a tendon hammer that resolves within seconds). (link)
Incorrect
Early features of rabies include: paraesthesia around bite site; neuropathic pain from region of the bite; intense pruritus at the bite site progressing to involve the limb or side of the face; myoedema (sustained contraction of the muscle elicited by being struck by a tendon hammer that resolves within seconds). (link)
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Indications for chest CT following trauma include all of the following except
Correct
Indications for chest CT following trauma include: 3 or more visible rib fractures; any haemothorax visible on CXR or US; widened mediastinum; suspected major vascular injury; suspected diaphragmatic injury; and when CT of head/neck and abdomen are going to be performed. (link)
Incorrect
Indications for chest CT following trauma include: 3 or more visible rib fractures; any haemothorax visible on CXR or US; widened mediastinum; suspected major vascular injury; suspected diaphragmatic injury; and when CT of head/neck and abdomen are going to be performed. (link)
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
The recommended initial transfusion ratio of packed cells, FFP and adult dose platelets in massive traumatic haemorrhage is
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
The features considered diagnostic of Leptospirosis are
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Which of the following statements regarding chilblains is incorrect
Correct
Chilblains are a non-freezing injury causing red, oedematous lesions on the fingertips or toes. They are caused by an exaggerated inflammatory response to cold and most commonly affects young females. Symptoms are intense pain, itching, or burning and are treated by re-warming and lesions usually resolve by 1-2 weeks. (link)
Incorrect
Chilblains are a non-freezing injury causing red, oedematous lesions on the fingertips or toes. They are caused by an exaggerated inflammatory response to cold and most commonly affects young females. Symptoms are intense pain, itching, or burning and are treated by re-warming and lesions usually resolve by 1-2 weeks. (link)