New life support quiz 08/02/2026 by Bob Dunn Report a question What's wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% 1 votes, 4 avg 29 123456789101112131415 Created on November 16, 2025 By Bob Dunn Life support BLS and ALS 1 / 15 1. In an adult patient with cardiac arrest, defibrillation pads should be placed a) Anterior posterior - with anterior being negative b) Apical basal c) Anterior posterior d) Basal posterior In an adult patient with cardiac arrest, defibrillation pads should be placed apical basal. Anteroposterior placement would require interruption of CPR, which should be avoided. In an adult patient with cardiac arrest, defibrillation pads should be placed apical basal. Anteroposterior placement would require interruption of CPR, which should be avoided. 2 / 15 2. Common causes of spurious rhythms may include all of the following except: a) Deep breathing may mimic complete heart block b) Shivering may mimic ventricular fibrillation c) Very fine VF can be misinterpreted as asystole d) Coarse Parkinsonian tremor can mimic atrial flutter 3 / 15 3. The actual correct management sequence of BLS in cardiac arrest is as follows a) DRSCAB b) SDRABC c) DABRCS d) DRSABC The actual correct sequence is Danger Response Send for help Compressions Airway Breathing. The ‘S’ was added in 2011 but unfortunately the ‘ABC’ sequence was not changed in the acronym did not change from DRSABC as this was thought to be potentially confusing for people already familiar with the ‘ABC’ sequence. The actual correct sequence is Danger Response Send for help Compressions Airway Breathing. The ‘S’ was added in 2011 but unfortunately the ‘ABC’ sequence was not changed in the acronym did not change from DRSABC as this was thought to be potentially confusing for people already familiar with the ‘ABC’ sequence. 4 / 15 4. Regarding cardiac arrest in pregnancy which one of the following is correct a) The risk of pulmonary aspiration decreases with advancing gestational age b) Displacement of the uterus to the left should occur during (and after) CPR c) Chest compression should occur over the mid sternum to prevent damage to the fetus d) A postmortem Caesarean section may be considered if the fetus has a gestational age of > 20 weeks / the time from arrest is < 15 min / the cause of maternal death is not haemorrhagic shock or obstetric related 5 / 15 5. In out of hospital adult cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm the third shock will be delivered at a) 8 minutes after CPR has commenced b) 2 minutes after CPR has commenced c) 4 minutes after CPR has commenced d) 6 minutes after CPR has commenced In out of hospital adult cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm the third shock will be delivered at 4 minutes after CPR has commenced. In out of hospital adult cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm the third shock will be delivered at 4 minutes after CPR has commenced. 6 / 15 6. Which one of the following statements is incorrect a) An appropriate tidal volume for a patient in cardiac arrest is 500mL b) The resting O2 consumption in an adult is 250 mL/min c) An appropriate respiratory rate for a patient in cardiac arrest is 8/min d) An appropriate minute volume for a patient in cardiac arrest is 4 litres / min 7 / 15 7. In an adult patient with witnessed, monitored, in hospital cardiac arrest due to VF which one of the following strategies is most likely to obtain ROSC? a) 2 minutes of CPR then defibrillation b) CPR until defibrillator ready, 3 stacked shocks, then 2 minutes of CPR if ineffective c) Immediate single defibrillation, then 2 minutes of CPR if ineffective d) 3 stacked shocks, 1mg adrenaline then 2 minutes of CPR if ineffective In an adult patient with witnessed, monitored, in hospital cardiac arrest due to VF, CPR until defibrillator ready, 3 stacked shocks, then 2 minutes of CPR if ineffective is the strategy most likely to obtain ROSC. According to ILCOR guidelines (as of 2025) this strategy should be considered, but evidence suggests it is superior to the out of hospital cardiac arrest algorithm. In an adult patient with witnessed, monitored, in hospital cardiac arrest due to VF, CPR until defibrillator ready, 3 stacked shocks, then 2 minutes of CPR if ineffective is the strategy most likely to obtain ROSC. According to ILCOR guidelines (as of 2025) this strategy should be considered, but evidence suggests it is superior to the out of hospital cardiac arrest algorithm. 8 / 15 8. In paediatric cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm the defibrillator energy setting is a) 3J/kg b) 4J/kg c) 2J/kg d) 1J/kg In paediatric cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm the defibrillator energy setting is 4J/Kg. In paediatric cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm the defibrillator energy setting is 4J/Kg. 9 / 15 9. Regarding cardiac arrest following poisoning which one of the following statements is incorrect: a) The prognosis for most patients with poisoning is worse than that of older patients with cardiogenic cardiac arrest b) Diazepam and adrenaline are antidotes for chloroquine toxicity c) Naloxone is an antidote for clonidine toxicity d) HCO3 therapy may be indicated 10 / 15 10. Which one of the following statements regarding drug therapy in ALS for shockable rhythms is correct a) Lignocaine is superior to amiodarone b) Amiodarone is superior to lignocaine c) Amiodarone and lignocaine are highly effective d) Amiodarone and lignocaine are similarly effective In shockable rhythms that have failed defibrillation attempts and adrenaline, lignocaine and amiodarone are considered of equal (but low) effectiveness. In shockable rhythms that have failed defibrillation attempts and adrenaline, lignocaine and amiodarone are considered of equal (but low) effectiveness. 11 / 15 11. The appropriate compression : relaxation ratio for chest compressions in BLS in adults is a) 2:1 b) 1.5:1 c) 1:1 d) 1:2 The appropriate compression : relaxation ratio for chest compressions in BLS in adults is 1:1. The appropriate compression : relaxation ratio for chest compressions in BLS in adults is 1:1. 12 / 15 12. In cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation in adults, which one of the following management sequences is preferred: a) Commence CPR / apply monitor to determine rhythm / defibrillate b) Perform endotracheal intubation / commence CPR / apply monitor to determine rhythm / defibrillate c) Commence CPR / establish IV access / apply monitor to determine rhythm / defibrillate d) Commence CPR / apply monitor to determine rhythm / perform endotracheal intubation / defibrillate In cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation in adults the following sequence is preferred: Commence external cardiac massage / apply monitor to determine rhythm / defibrillate. In cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation in adults the following sequence is preferred: Commence external cardiac massage / apply monitor to determine rhythm / defibrillate. 13 / 15 13. In adult cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm adrenaline should first be given a) Immediately on recognition of cardiac arrest b) 2 minutes after CPR has commenced c) 6 minutes after CPR has commenced d) 4 minutes after CPR has commenced In adult cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm adrenaline should first be given 2 minutes after CPR has commenced. In adult cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm adrenaline should first be given 2 minutes after CPR has commenced. 14 / 15 14. The preferred initial sequence of management of asystole is which one of the following: a) Commence CPR / obtain IV access / administer adrenaline 1mg / repeat adrenaline every 2 minutes/perform endotracheal intubation b) Obtain IV access / perform endotracheal intubation / commence CPR / administer adrenaline 1mg / repeat adrenaline every 2 minutes c) Commence CPR / obtain IV access / perform endotracheal intubation / administer atropine 1mg / administer adrenaline every 2 minutes d) Commence CPR / obtain IV access / administer adrenaline 2mg / perform endotracheal intubation /repeat adrenaline every 2 minutes Early intubation is most likely harmful as some interruption of CPR is usually required. It is best deferred until the patient fails to respond to initial CPR and defibrillation attempts or demonstrates ROSC. Chest compressions should only be ceased at the time the intubator is about to insert the laryngoscope into the patient’s mouth and intubation should be achieved within 10 seconds. The initial dose of adrenaline is 1mg, repeated every 2 minutes. Early intubation is most likely harmful as some interruption of CPR is usually required. It is best deferred until the patient fails to respond to initial CPR and defibrillation attempts or demonstrates ROSC. Chest compressions should only be ceased at the time the intubator is about to insert the laryngoscope into the patient’s mouth and intubation should be achieved within 10 seconds. The initial dose of adrenaline is 1mg, repeated every 2 minutes. 15 / 15 15. The effectiveness of a single 200J biphasic defibrillation in an adult with VF when delivered within 30 seconds of VF onset is approximately a) 95% b) 70% c) 30% d) 50% The effectiveness of a single 200J biphasic defibrillation in an adult with VF when delivered within 30 seconds of VF onset is approximately 95%. The effectiveness of a single 200J biphasic defibrillation in an adult with VF when delivered within 30 seconds of VF onset is approximately 95%. Your score is The average score is 54% 0% Restart quiz Send feedback