Quiz-summary
0 of 20 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
Information
This is a 20 MCQ quiz on some of the recent updates to the manual. We suggest reviewing the recent updates before taking this quiz.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 20 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Abdominal - Fellowship 0%
- Cardiology - fellowship 0%
- Clinical practice skills - Fellowship 0%
- Haematology - fellowship 0%
- Head and neck - Fellowship 0%
- ID - fellowship 0%
- Paediatrics - fellowship 0%
- Research - Fellowship 0%
- Respiratory - Fellowship 0%
- Resuscitation - fellowship 0%
- Toxicology - fellowship 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 20
1. Question
All of the following types of scalp haematoma are associated with an increased risk of ICH in children except
Correct
Types of scalp haematoma associated with increased risk of significant intracranial injury including: any scalp haematoma in infants < 3 months of age; non frontal haematoma > 1cm in diameter or a frontal haematoma > 3cm diameter. (link)
Incorrect
Types of scalp haematoma associated with increased risk of significant intracranial injury including: any scalp haematoma in infants < 3 months of age; non frontal haematoma > 1cm in diameter or a frontal haematoma > 3cm diameter. (link)
-
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
Which one of the following best describes the test characteristics of an arterial lactate of > 2mmol/L for the presence of severe sepsis or septic shock
-
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
Supplying full information to obtain informed consent is not required in all of the following situations except
Correct
Informed consent is the process of ensuring patients are aware of all the risks and benefits of a procedure relevant to them. This includes rare events that might be important to the patient. Full information to allow informed consent is not required if: it is common knowledge; the patient is already aware of the information (e.g. from an identical prior procedure); or if the situation is a true emergency (link)
Incorrect
Informed consent is the process of ensuring patients are aware of all the risks and benefits of a procedure relevant to them. This includes rare events that might be important to the patient. Full information to allow informed consent is not required if: it is common knowledge; the patient is already aware of the information (e.g. from an identical prior procedure); or if the situation is a true emergency (link)
-
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
A 45 year old woman referred to the ED with a possible isolated lower limb DVT who has a negative 2 point bedside ultrasound by an ED physician trained in the technique, and who has a D dimer of 0.4 should be managed with
Correct
An ED patient with a negative 2 point US and a negative D dimer is considered at such low risk that they do not require any further investigation for DVT. If the 2 point US is negative, but the D dimer is elevated (or not performed) then follow up US in 4-7 days is usually recommended. (link)
Incorrect
An ED patient with a negative 2 point US and a negative D dimer is considered at such low risk that they do not require any further investigation for DVT. If the 2 point US is negative, but the D dimer is elevated (or not performed) then follow up US in 4-7 days is usually recommended. (link)
-
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
All of the following bowel loop widths are considered normal except
Correct
The jejunal loops are normally < 2.5 cm in diameter – a diameter > 2.5cm is suggestive of bowel obstruction and diameters > 3cm making bowel obstruction highly probable. (link)
Incorrect
The jejunal loops are normally < 2.5 cm in diameter – a diameter > 2.5cm is suggestive of bowel obstruction and diameters > 3cm making bowel obstruction highly probable. (link)
-
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Which one of the following features is least suggestive of an ileus
Correct
Ileus is least likely to have dehydration present. Sparse bowel sounds, gas fluid levels of non distended bowel on an erect AXR would be expected.(link)
Incorrect
Ileus is least likely to have dehydration present. Sparse bowel sounds, gas fluid levels of non distended bowel on an erect AXR would be expected.(link)
-
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Streptococcal pharyngitis is more than 50% likely if one or more of the following criteria are present except
Correct
If one or more of the following features are present, then the probability that a sore throat is due to Streptococcal infection is greater than 50%: tonsillar exudate, absence of coryza and cough, cervical lymphadenopathy or scarlatiniform rash. Difficulty swallowing is a non specific symptom that can occur with many different causes of pharyngitis. (link)
Incorrect
If one or more of the following features are present, then the probability that a sore throat is due to Streptococcal infection is greater than 50%: tonsillar exudate, absence of coryza and cough, cervical lymphadenopathy or scarlatiniform rash. Difficulty swallowing is a non specific symptom that can occur with many different causes of pharyngitis. (link)
-
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Which one of the following antibiotic regimens would be most appropriate for a diabetic patient with mild lower limb cellulitis and no allergies
Correct
Diabetic patients with cellulitis need antibiotic cover that will include gram negatives and anaerobes. Flucloxacillin and vancomycin are inadequate to do this. Ciprofloxacin and clindamycin can be used, but are reserved for severe infections and clindamycin is given as a 900mg IV slow infusion 8 hourly, not orally in this case. (link)
Incorrect
Diabetic patients with cellulitis need antibiotic cover that will include gram negatives and anaerobes. Flucloxacillin and vancomycin are inadequate to do this. Ciprofloxacin and clindamycin can be used, but are reserved for severe infections and clindamycin is given as a 900mg IV slow infusion 8 hourly, not orally in this case. (link)
-
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Which one of the following would be least useful in the treatment of a patient with necrotising fasciitis
-
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
Following delivery, the term newborn preductal SpO2 should normally be greater than 85% by no later than
Correct
The normal term newborn usually has a SpO2 of 50-60 at birth. This improves over the next few minutes in children who are breathing so that most lose their blue appearance by 3 minutes. Despite that, SpO2 may still take up to 10 minutes after delivery to reach 85%.(link)
Incorrect
The normal term newborn usually has a SpO2 of 50-60 at birth. This improves over the next few minutes in children who are breathing so that most lose their blue appearance by 3 minutes. Despite that, SpO2 may still take up to 10 minutes after delivery to reach 85%.(link)
-
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Examination of which one of the following is likely to be most helpful in differentiating neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome
Correct
Pupils are usually dilated in serotonin toxicity and normal in NMS. Muscle tone, temperature changes and conscious state can be changed in both NMS and serotonin toxicity, although usually more markedly effected in NMS. (link)
Incorrect
Pupils are usually dilated in serotonin toxicity and normal in NMS. Muscle tone, temperature changes and conscious state can be changed in both NMS and serotonin toxicity, although usually more markedly effected in NMS. (link)
-
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
Which one of the following best describes FEIBA
Correct
FEIBA (Factor eight inhibitor bypass activity) is used in patients with Haemophilia A who have inhibitors and in the treatment of NOAC toxicity. It does not contain antithrombin III concentrate (Thrombotrol does). It is produced from pooled plasma and comes as a using recombinant technology. It comes as sterile lyophilised powder given IV after reconstitution.(link)
Incorrect
FEIBA (Factor eight inhibitor bypass activity) is used in patients with Haemophilia A who have inhibitors and in the treatment of NOAC toxicity. It does not contain antithrombin III concentrate (Thrombotrol does). It is produced from pooled plasma and comes as a using recombinant technology. It comes as sterile lyophilised powder given IV after reconstitution.(link)
-
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
Haemolysis of a blood sample would be expected to cause elevation of the measured levels of all of the following in the sample except
-
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Which one of the following treatments would you be least likely to use for the immediate treatment of a serum potassium level of 8.5 mmol/L and a QRS width of 0.16 seconds in a patient on dialysis with a history of heart failure.
-
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Which one of the following situations would be the least appropriate to cease resuscitation in a newborn
Correct
Resuscitation is not usually indicated in a newborn of less than 23 weeks (not 28 weeks), due to the poor outcome. Confirmed trisomy 13 or 18, anencephaly or birth weight of < 400g are other reasons to terminate (or not commence) resuscitation. (link)
Incorrect
Resuscitation is not usually indicated in a newborn of less than 23 weeks (not 28 weeks), due to the poor outcome. Confirmed trisomy 13 or 18, anencephaly or birth weight of < 400g are other reasons to terminate (or not commence) resuscitation. (link)
-
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
A test with an area under it’s ROC curve of 0.5 would be considered
Correct
An area under the ROC of 0.5 (which is the lowest value possible) means the test is completely useless and adds no additional diagnostic information. AUC values that indicate the degree of usefulness of a test are as follows: 1 – perfect; 0.9-1 – excellent; 0.8-0.9 – good; 0.7-0.8 – fair; 0.6-0.7 – poor; 0.5-0.6 – useless. (link)
Incorrect
An area under the ROC of 0.5 (which is the lowest value possible) means the test is completely useless and adds no additional diagnostic information. AUC values that indicate the degree of usefulness of a test are as follows: 1 – perfect; 0.9-1 – excellent; 0.8-0.9 – good; 0.7-0.8 – fair; 0.6-0.7 – poor; 0.5-0.6 – useless. (link)
-
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
The classical ECG feature of arrhytmogenic cardiomyopathy is
Correct
Epsilon waves are only present in 25% of cases however are highly specific. Delta waves are present in ventricular pre-excitation syndromes, whilst inverted T waves and downward sloping ST segments in V1-2 occur in Brugada syndrome. An S:T ratio of > 4 suggests an LV aneurysm. (link)
Incorrect
Epsilon waves are only present in 25% of cases however are highly specific. Delta waves are present in ventricular pre-excitation syndromes, whilst inverted T waves and downward sloping ST segments in V1-2 occur in Brugada syndrome. An S:T ratio of > 4 suggests an LV aneurysm. (link)
-
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
The finding on an erect CXR that would make you most suspicious of the presence of an empyema is
Correct
Empyema characteristically causes a pleural effusion that has a flattened meniscus level due to the density of the inflammatory pleural fluid. None of the others options would likely to be present, although extrapleural fluid might rarely be present if the empyema has developed from a penetrating wound or an invasive soft tissue infection. (link)
Incorrect
Empyema characteristically causes a pleural effusion that has a flattened meniscus level due to the density of the inflammatory pleural fluid. None of the others options would likely to be present, although extrapleural fluid might rarely be present if the empyema has developed from a penetrating wound or an invasive soft tissue infection. (link)
-
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
The normal amplitude of a QRS complex on an ECG taken using standard settings in an adult
Correct
The normal QRS amplitude is ≥ 5 mm in each limb lead and ≥ 10 mm in each precordial lead and varies according to body habitus and patient size. Amplitude can decrease in severe hypovolaemia, usually most prominent in lead V5.(link)
Incorrect
The normal QRS amplitude is ≥ 5 mm in each limb lead and ≥ 10 mm in each precordial lead and varies according to body habitus and patient size. Amplitude can decrease in severe hypovolaemia, usually most prominent in lead V5.(link)
-
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Which one of the following would not be appropriate to be used as part of PPE for staff attending to a patient with suspected Ebola
Correct
Ebola PPE requires no skin is allowed to be exposed by the use of: disposable surgical scrubs (to replace street clothes, excluding underwear); disposable long-sleeved impermeable gown; disposable leg/foot covers; disposable full-face visor; disposable balaclava or suitable hood to cover head and neck; and 2 pairs of gloves, longer length to cover wrists (e.g. surgical gloves). A N95 / P2 mask is required – a standard surgical mask is insufficient. (link)
Incorrect