Quiz-summary
0 of 20 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
Information
This is a 20 MCQ quiz on some of the recent updates to the manual. We suggest reviewing the recent updates before taking this quiz.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 20 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Clinical practice skills - Fellowship 0%
- Dermatology - Fellowship 0%
- Environmental- fellowship 0%
- Haematology - fellowship 0%
- Infectious diseases - Fellowship 0%
- Neurology - fellowship 0%
- Paediatrics - fellowship 0%
- Respiratory - Fellowship 0%
- Resuscitation - fellowship 0%
- Toxicology - fellowship 0%
- Trauma - fellowship 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the expiratory hold manoeuvre is incorrect
Correct
The expiratory hold maneouvre measures the degree of auto-PEEP. Expiration is held at the end of expiration by occluding the expiratory port which allows equilibration of the alveolar and airway opening pressures. Auto-PEEP = the airway pressure – applied PEEP. (link)
Incorrect
The expiratory hold maneouvre measures the degree of auto-PEEP. Expiration is held at the end of expiration by occluding the expiratory port which allows equilibration of the alveolar and airway opening pressures. Auto-PEEP = the airway pressure – applied PEEP. (link)
-
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
The recommended initial ventilator settings for an average sized newborn to achieve normal ventilation are
-
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
The recommended initial ventilator settings for an average sized 1 year old to achieve normal ventilation are
Correct
The recommended initial ventilator settings for an average sized 1 year old to achieve normal ventilation are TV 60mL/ 35 breaths/min (link).
Incorrect
The recommended initial ventilator settings for an average sized 1 year old to achieve normal ventilation are TV 60mL/ 35 breaths/min (link).
-
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
-
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
A 23 year old man presents with pain in his legs. A photo of his legs is shown below. The most likely diagnosis is
-
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the management of a thrombosed PICC line without obstruction is incorrect.
Correct
There is little high quality data about patients with PICC lines that are thrombosed but not obstructed. Management options include: Systemic anticoagulation for at least 6 weeks as for lower limb DVT; or insertion of an SVC filter for patients where anti-coagulation is contraindicated. It is unclear if catheter removal is required as most patients still require the catheter, so removal requires re-insertion of another catheter in the contralateral arm. Patients with haematological malignancies do not appear to have better outcomes with catheter removal, compared to systemic anti-coagulation alone. As there is risk of serious pulmonary embolism if the catheter is removed when there is an adherent large thrombus, catheter removal after 3-5 days of anti-coagulation is an option for large thrombosis. (link)
Incorrect
There is little high quality data about patients with PICC lines that are thrombosed but not obstructed. Management options include: Systemic anticoagulation for at least 6 weeks as for lower limb DVT; or insertion of an SVC filter for patients where anti-coagulation is contraindicated. It is unclear if catheter removal is required as most patients still require the catheter, so removal requires re-insertion of another catheter in the contralateral arm. Patients with haematological malignancies do not appear to have better outcomes with catheter removal, compared to systemic anti-coagulation alone. As there is risk of serious pulmonary embolism if the catheter is removed when there is an adherent large thrombus, catheter removal after 3-5 days of anti-coagulation is an option for large thrombosis. (link)
-
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
The incidence of acute coronary occlusion in survivors of a PEA arrest is approximately
-
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
The recommended dose of tPA in cardiac arrest is
Correct
The recommended dose of tPA in cardiac arrest is 50mg IV bolus, repeated at 15 minutes if there is no ROSC. (link)
Incorrect
-
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
E cigarettes have all of the following properties except
Correct
The E-liquids and aerosols used in e cigarettes appear to have toxicant levels much lower than those from tobacco smoke and have a very low carcinogen content. E cigarettes have a minimal risk for nicotine poisoning when used as intended and the humectants in e-cigarettes seem safe for inhalation. E-cigarettes can reduce smoking urges and may help motivated smokers to quit. (link)
Incorrect
The E-liquids and aerosols used in e cigarettes appear to have toxicant levels much lower than those from tobacco smoke and have a very low carcinogen content. E cigarettes have a minimal risk for nicotine poisoning when used as intended and the humectants in e-cigarettes seem safe for inhalation. E-cigarettes can reduce smoking urges and may help motivated smokers to quit. (link)
-
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
Compared to a supine CXR, US using a 7.5mHz probe and a trained operator for the detection of traumatic pneumothorax is approximately
Correct
US has higher sensitivity (> 90% vs 75%) than supine CXR with a similar specificity (> 95%). It is approximately 5% more accurate overall than combined clinical examination and chest radiography. (link)
Incorrect
US has higher sensitivity (> 90% vs 75%) than supine CXR with a similar specificity (> 95%). It is approximately 5% more accurate overall than combined clinical examination and chest radiography. (link)
-
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Which one of the following clinical features is least suggestive of Ebola infection
Correct
Common clinical features of Ebola infection are: a non-specific febrile prodrome of < 1 week; fever > 38C; hypotension; relative bradycardia; conjunctivitis; pharyngitis with dysphagia; cutaneous flushing or maculopapular rash; vomiting and diarrhoea (which may be bloody); arthralgia; hiccough (usually in the pre-terminal phase). Lymphadenopathy and hepatomegaly are rare so other diagnoses should be considered. (link)
Incorrect
Common clinical features of Ebola infection are: a non-specific febrile prodrome of < 1 week; fever > 38C; hypotension; relative bradycardia; conjunctivitis; pharyngitis with dysphagia; cutaneous flushing or maculopapular rash; vomiting and diarrhoea (which may be bloody); arthralgia; hiccough (usually in the pre-terminal phase). Lymphadenopathy and hepatomegaly are rare so other diagnoses should be considered. (link)
-
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
Which one of the following features on investigation is most suggestive of early Ebola infection
Correct
A falling platelet count with marked lymphopenia can be seen in the initial stages of infection but is not diagnostic. A neutrophil leucocytosis occurs in the later stages in patients who eventually recover, along with normalisation of thrombocytopaenia. There is usually coagulation factor depletion with an elevated INR / APTT and DIC. AST rises more than ALT in Ebola with a high AST/ALT ratio indicating poor prognosis. Jaundice is rare in Ebola as are pulmonary infiltrates on CXR. (link)
Incorrect
A falling platelet count with marked lymphopenia can be seen in the initial stages of infection but is not diagnostic. A neutrophil leucocytosis occurs in the later stages in patients who eventually recover, along with normalisation of thrombocytopaenia. There is usually coagulation factor depletion with an elevated INR / APTT and DIC. AST rises more than ALT in Ebola with a high AST/ALT ratio indicating poor prognosis. Jaundice is rare in Ebola as are pulmonary infiltrates on CXR. (link)
-
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
A patient from an area of endemic Ebola presents with a fever of 38.2C, but is otherwise well. They have a negative blood PCR for Ebola. The correct course of action is
Correct
As blood PCR may be negative early in the course of the disease, a repeat PCR is required at 48 hours. Despite the low risk of transmission to others from ‘dry’ Ebola, due to the high lethality of the disease, ongoing strict isolation in hospital is required. Negative blood tests or PCR from throat or urine samples are not currently considered as ruling out the disease. (link)
Incorrect
As blood PCR may be negative early in the course of the disease, a repeat PCR is required at 48 hours. Despite the low risk of transmission to others from ‘dry’ Ebola, due to the high lethality of the disease, ongoing strict isolation in hospital is required. Negative blood tests or PCR from throat or urine samples are not currently considered as ruling out the disease. (link)
-
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding platelet transfusion is incorrect
Correct
It is not essential to have ABO and Rh compatibility for platelet transfusion, although this is ideal. Without compatibility, platelet survival may be reduced, however haemolysis is rare. RhD sensitisation may occur so consider giving prophylactic RhD immunoglobulin when RhD positive platelets are transfused into a RhD negative recipient, particularly in premenopausal females. A filter is not required for the transfusion of platelets. (link)
Incorrect
It is not essential to have ABO and Rh compatibility for platelet transfusion, although this is ideal. Without compatibility, platelet survival may be reduced, however haemolysis is rare. RhD sensitisation may occur so consider giving prophylactic RhD immunoglobulin when RhD positive platelets are transfused into a RhD negative recipient, particularly in premenopausal females. A filter is not required for the transfusion of platelets. (link)
-
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Investigation of a patient with anaemia reveals: a high MCV/Hb ratio; high red cell distribution width; low serum iron; and low transferrin. This pattern of abnormalities is most characteristic of
Correct
The pattern of abnormalities is most characteristic of anaemia of chronic disease. Fe deficiency anaemia would be expected to have an elevated transferrin. Sideroblastic anaemia would not be expected to have low serum iron or transferrin. Thalassaemia minor usually has a decreased MCV/Hb ratio. (link)
Incorrect
The pattern of abnormalities is most characteristic of anaemia of chronic disease. Fe deficiency anaemia would be expected to have an elevated transferrin. Sideroblastic anaemia would not be expected to have low serum iron or transferrin. Thalassaemia minor usually has a decreased MCV/Hb ratio. (link)
-
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
An anaemia with an MCV of 120 fL is most likely due to
-
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
A 43 year old carpenter sustains a laceration over the dorsum of his left wrist with a sharp knife. By testing function, you identify that the tendons of extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis are divided. The other structure most likely divided is
Correct
Both the radial nerve and the radial artery usually lie between EPL and extensor indicis, however the radial artery is more superficial, so is most likely to have been injured by the mechanism described. EPB is more radial to EPL and extensor digitorum is more ulnar in location. (link)
Incorrect
Both the radial nerve and the radial artery usually lie between EPL and extensor indicis, however the radial artery is more superficial, so is most likely to have been injured by the mechanism described. EPB is more radial to EPL and extensor digitorum is more ulnar in location. (link)
-
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
A 20 year old man sustains a deep stab wound to the radial border of the volar surface of his forearm. The muscle most likely to be injured is
Correct
Brachioradialis is the most likely muscle involved as FDS and Palmaris longus are more medial. Supinator is located on the dorsal aspect of the forearm. (link)
Incorrect
Brachioradialis is the most likely muscle involved as FDS and Palmaris longus are more medial. Supinator is located on the dorsal aspect of the forearm. (link)
-
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
The superior sagittal sinus usually drains into the
-
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Samples suitable for transport via a pneumatic tube system include all of the following except
Correct
Pneumatic tube systems can transport most types of specimens to the laboratory, however blood culture bottles require special protection to prevent breakage and blood gas samples need to be sent in a sealed container to prevent changes in the ambient pressure altering partial pressure values. Potentially infective samples from serious transmissible diseases (e.g. Ebola) should not be sent through a pneumatic tube system. (link)
Incorrect
Pneumatic tube systems can transport most types of specimens to the laboratory, however blood culture bottles require special protection to prevent breakage and blood gas samples need to be sent in a sealed container to prevent changes in the ambient pressure altering partial pressure values. Potentially infective samples from serious transmissible diseases (e.g. Ebola) should not be sent through a pneumatic tube system. (link)